Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is obtaining the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for isosorbide mononitrate. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a contraindication to this medication?

• A. Glaucoma
• B. Hypertension
• C. Polycythemia
• D. Migraine headaches

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isosorbide mononitrate is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma due to its potential to increase intraocular pressure, which can exacerbate the condition. Hypertension, polycythemia, and migraine headaches are not contraindications for isosorbide mononitrate. In fact, isosorbide mononitrate is commonly used in the management of hypertension and certain types of angina.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Massage the affected extremity
• B. Elevate the affected leg
• C. Apply cold packs to the affected leg
• D. Keep the leg dependent to increase circulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Elevating the leg promotes venous return and reduces swelling, which is crucial for clients with DVT. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge the clot and worsen the condition. Applying cold packs can cause vasoconstriction, potentially increasing the risk of clot formation. Keeping the leg dependent can impede circulation and increase the risk of clot migration.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is at risk for falls. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as increasing the client's risk of falling?

• A. Normal gait
• B. Recent history of dizziness
• C. 20/20 vision
• D. Takes a multivitamin daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recent history of dizziness. A recent history of dizziness significantly increases the risk of falling, as dizziness can impair balance and coordination. Having a normal gait (choice A) and 20/20 vision (choice C) are not factors that directly increase the risk of falling. Taking a multivitamin daily (choice D) does not inherently contribute to an increased risk of falling unless it causes dizziness as a side effect, which is not specified in the question.

4. A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Blood glucose 120 mg/dL
• B. pH 7.32
• C. HCO3 25 mEq/L
• D. PaCO2 48 mm Hg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A pH of 7.32 indicates metabolic acidosis, which is a hallmark of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, blood glucose levels are typically elevated, bicarbonate levels are often low, and there is a compensatory respiratory response leading to a decrease in PaCO2. Option A is incorrect because a blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL is within the normal range and not indicative of DKA. Option C is incorrect because an HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L is not typically seen in DKA where bicarbonate levels are usually lower. Option D is incorrect because a PaCO2 of 48 mm Hg would not be expected in DKA; it would typically be lower due to compensatory respiratory alkalosis.

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