Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.

2. A nurse is caring for a client in preterm labor who is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which of the following client findings indicates medication toxicity?

• A. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL
• B. Urine output of 20 mL per hour
• C. Systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg
• D. BUN 20 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A urine output of 20 mL per hour is low and indicates renal insufficiency, a sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity. The medication is excreted by the kidneys, so toxicity can occur if renal function declines. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL is within normal range and not indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity. A systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg is elevated but not specifically related to magnesium sulfate toxicity. A BUN level of 20 mg/dL is also within normal limits and not a sign of medication toxicity.

3. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.

4. A nurse on an acute med-surgical unit is performing assessments on a group of clients. Which is the highest priority?

• A. Client with surgical hypoparathyroidism and positive Trousseau's sign
• B. Client with Clostridium difficile and acute diarrhea
• C. Client with acute kidney injury and low urine specific gravity
• D. Client with oral cancer and reports a sore on his gums

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A positive Trousseau's sign indicates hypocalcemia, which can lead to life-threatening complications like tetany or laryngospasm, making it the highest priority. Choices B, C, and D, while important, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential complications of severe hypocalcemia seen in a client with surgical hypoparathyroidism and a positive Trousseau's sign.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who sprained his ankle 12 hours ago. Which of the following provider prescriptions should the nurse question?

• A. Elevate the affected extremity on two pillows
• B. Apply heat to the affected extremity for 45 minutes
• C. Wrap the extremity with a compression dressing
• D. Assess sensation, movement, and pulse every 4 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription to apply heat to the affected extremity for 45 minutes. Heat should not be applied in the first 48 hours after an acute injury, as it can increase swelling. Cold therapy is more appropriate initially. Choices A, C, and D are appropriate actions in the care of a client with a sprained ankle. Elevating the affected extremity helps reduce swelling, wrapping it with a compression dressing provides support, and assessing sensation, movement, and pulse every 4 hours is important to monitor for complications.

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