Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.

2. When educating a patient about gabapentin use, what should the nurse include?

• A. It can cause sedation
• B. It can be taken with alcohol
• C. It is a pain reliever
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause sedation.' Gabapentin is known to cause sedation, and patients should be advised about this side effect, especially regarding activities that require alertness. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin should not be taken with alcohol as it can increase the risk of central nervous system depression. Choice C is incorrect because while gabapentin is used to treat nerve pain, it is not classified as a traditional pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect because gabapentin, like any medication, can have side effects, such as dizziness, drowsiness, and fatigue.

3. When caring for a client prescribed azithromycin, what should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Signs of diarrhea
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Serum electrolytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor signs of diarrhea when a client is prescribed azithromycin. Azithromycin is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, particularly diarrhea. Monitoring for diarrhea is crucial to assess the client's response to the medication and to prevent complications such as dehydration. Monitoring liver function (choice A), blood glucose levels (choice C), and serum electrolytes (choice D) are not typically indicated specifically for clients prescribed azithromycin unless there are other specific reasons or conditions that warrant such monitoring.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a vaccine to a child. Which of the following should the provider verify?

• A. Allergy to eggs
• B. Previous vaccination history
• C. Family medical history
• D. Growth charts

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare provider should verify the child's previous vaccination history to ensure they are up to date with immunizations. This is important to prevent unnecessary or duplicate vaccinations and ensure the child is adequately protected against vaccine-preventable diseases. Checking for allergies to eggs is relevant for certain vaccines like the influenza vaccine but is not the top priority in this scenario. Family medical history and growth charts are not directly related to the administration of vaccines and are not as crucial as confirming the child's vaccination status.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which instruction should the nurse give to the client to monitor for hypoglycemia?

• A. Monitor for polyuria
• B. Monitor for diaphoresis
• C. Monitor for abdominal pain
• D. Monitor for thirst

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for diaphoresis.' Diaphoresis, which refers to excessive sweating, is a common symptom of hypoglycemia. It indicates a low blood sugar level and should prompt immediate treatment. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Polyuria is more commonly linked to hyperglycemia, while abdominal pain and thirst are not specific symptoms of hypoglycemia.

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