ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a vaccine to a child. Which of the following should the provider verify?
- A. Allergy to eggs
- B. Previous vaccination history
- C. Family medical history
- D. Growth charts
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The healthcare provider should verify the child's previous vaccination history to ensure they are up to date with immunizations. This is important to prevent unnecessary or duplicate vaccinations and ensure the child is adequately protected against vaccine-preventable diseases. Checking for allergies to eggs is relevant for certain vaccines like the influenza vaccine but is not the top priority in this scenario. Family medical history and growth charts are not directly related to the administration of vaccines and are not as crucial as confirming the child's vaccination status.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a flu vaccine. Which of the following should the healthcare professional verify?
- A. Client's age
- B. Client's allergy to eggs
- C. Client's vaccination history
- D. Client's weight
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The healthcare professional should verify the client's vaccination history to ensure they are due for the flu vaccine. Verifying the client's age (choice A) is important for other vaccines but not specifically for the flu vaccine. While allergy to eggs (choice B) is relevant as the flu vaccine is traditionally produced in eggs, it is not the top priority for verification. The client's weight (choice D) is not directly related to the administration of the flu vaccine.
3. A client is prescribed digoxin and has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer digoxin without any modifications
- B. Administer the medication at a lower dose
- C. Monitor serum potassium levels
- D. Discontinue the medication if potassium levels rise
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. In this case, the nurse should administer the digoxin without any modifications. Lowering the dose (Choice B) may not be necessary if the potassium level is not critically low. Monitoring serum potassium levels (Choice C) is important but should not delay the administration of digoxin. Discontinuing the medication (Choice D) is not the initial action to take unless the potassium levels become severely low and life-threatening.
4. When teaching a client about the use of risperidone, which of the following should be included?
- A. It is an SSRI
- B. Monitor for metabolic syndrome
- C. It has no side effects
- D. It can be taken with alcohol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for metabolic syndrome.' Risperidone is not an SSRI but an atypical antipsychotic. Choice A is incorrect. Choice C is also incorrect as risperidone, like any medication, can have side effects. Choice D is wrong because alcohol consumption should generally be avoided while taking risperidone. Educating clients about monitoring for metabolic syndrome, weight gain, and other potential side effects is crucial in managing their health effectively while on this medication.
5. A client is found on the floor of their room experiencing a seizure. Which action is the nurse's priority?
- A. Restrain the client
- B. Place the client on their side with their head forward
- C. Perform a neurological assessment
- D. Monitor the client's vitals every 2 minutes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client on their side with their head forward. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of fluids or secretions. Restraint should never be used during a seizure as it can cause harm to the client. Performing a neurological assessment is important but not the immediate priority during an active seizure. While monitoring vitals is essential, ensuring the client's airway is clear takes precedence.
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