ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. When planning to discharge a client receiving home oxygen therapy, which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Ensure that electrical cords are not frayed
- B. Keep oxygen tanks in a horizontal position
- C. Store extra oxygen tanks in a closed closet
- D. Apply petroleum-based gel to the inside of the nostrils
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure that electrical cords are not frayed. Frayed electrical cords pose a fire hazard when oxygen is in use. Keeping oxygen tanks in a horizontal position (Choice B) is important to prevent leaks but is not the priority compared to fire safety. Storing extra oxygen tanks in a closed closet (Choice C) is also important but not as immediate as preventing fire hazards. Applying petroleum-based gel to the inside of the nostrils (Choice D) is unrelated to oxygen therapy safety and is not recommended.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor. The nurse notes early decelerations in the FHR on the fetal monitor tracing. The nurse should identify that which of the following conditions causes early decelerations in the FHR?
- A. Fetal hypoxemia
- B. Cord compression
- C. Uteroplacental insufficiency
- D. Head compression
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Early decelerations are caused by head compression during contractions, which is a normal response as the fetal head is being compressed during uterine contractions. This usually indicates that the fetus is descending into the birth canal. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Fetal hypoxemia, cord compression, and uteroplacental insufficiency typically present with variable or late decelerations on the fetal heart rate tracing, not early decelerations.
3. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a UTI. What prescription should the nurse verify with a provider?
- A. Ciprofloxacin
- B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- C. Oxybutynin
- D. Nitrofurantoin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic used to treat overactive bladder, not a UTI. The nurse should verify this prescription because it may not be appropriate for a UTI. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of UTIs. Ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin are more suitable choices for the treatment of a UTI compared to oxybutynin.
4. A nurse in an emergency department is serving on a committee that is reviewing the facility protocol for disaster readiness. The nurse should recommend that the protocol include which of the following as a clinical manifestation of smallpox?
- A. Bloody diarrhea
- B. Ptosis of the eyelids
- C. Descending paralysis
- D. Rash in the mouth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Rash in the mouth.' Smallpox presents with a distinctive rash that typically begins in the mouth and spreads to the rest of the body, developing into pustules. This rash is a key clinical manifestation of smallpox. This infectious disease is characterized by the rash, fever, and other systemic symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not associated with smallpox. Bloody diarrhea, ptosis of the eyelids, and descending paralysis are not typical clinical manifestations of smallpox.
5. A client who signed an informed consent form for surgery but has since expressed doubts about the need for surgery should discuss concerns with the surgeon to obtain informed answers. Which statement should the nurse make?
- A. It's normal to feel unsure; the surgery will be beneficial
- B. You can cancel surgery any time without any consequences
- C. I'll inform the surgeon to answer your questions before surgery
- D. We can reschedule surgery for another day
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the nurse should facilitate communication between the client and the surgeon to address any doubts and provide necessary information. Choice A may invalidate the client's concerns and might not address the root of the issue. Choice B oversimplifies the situation and might not consider the potential consequences of canceling surgery. Choice D, while offering an alternative, does not address the client's doubts about the surgery.
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