a nurse is caring for a toddler with respiratory syncytial virus rsv which action should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A nurse is caring for a toddler with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a designated stethoscope for the toddler is crucial to reduce the risk of spreading RSV to other patients. Choice B is incorrect because N95 respirator masks are not specifically indicated for RSV. Choice C is unnecessary as RSV does not require isolation in a negative pressure room. Choice D is incorrect because the gown should be removed after leaving the room to prevent transmission of pathogens to other areas.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who reports a possible exposure to HIV. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an early manifestation of HIV infection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fatigue. A client with early HIV infection can be asymptomatic or experience symptoms like viral infections, such as fever, rash, and fatigue. Fatigue is a common early manifestation of HIV infection due to the body's immune response. Stomatitis (choice A) is more commonly associated with oral health issues or infections. Wasting syndrome (choice C) and lipodystrophy (choice D) are more advanced manifestations seen in later stages of HIV infection, characterized by severe weight loss and changes in body fat distribution, respectively.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for furosemide. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Furosemide is a diuretic that does not require a reduction in fish consumption. Therefore, the statement 'I will limit my intake of fish' indicates a misunderstanding of dietary considerations. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate actions related to furosemide therapy. Taking pills with food or milk can help reduce stomach upset, daily weight monitoring is crucial due to the diuretic effect of furosemide, and notifying the nurse about muscle cramps is important as it can be a sign of electrolyte imbalance, a potential side effect of furosemide.

5. A nurse is preparing to assist a provider with the insertion of a nontunneled percutaneous central venous catheter into a client’s subclavian vein. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when assisting with the insertion of a nontunneled percutaneous central venous catheter into the subclavian vein is to place the client in Trendelenburg position. This position helps distend the veins and reduces the risk of air embolism during the insertion procedure. Option A, positioning the client in a high-Fowler’s position, would not be appropriate as it does not facilitate venous distention. Option C, placing a rolled towel under the client’s neck, is not directly related to the procedure and does not serve a specific purpose in this context. Option D, assisting the client into a side-lying position, is also not the correct choice as Trendelenburg position is preferred for this procedure to aid in vein distention.

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