a nurse is caring for a toddler with respiratory syncytial virus rsv which action should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A nurse is caring for a toddler with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a designated stethoscope for the toddler is crucial to reduce the risk of spreading RSV to other patients. Choice B is incorrect because N95 respirator masks are not specifically indicated for RSV. Choice C is unnecessary as RSV does not require isolation in a negative pressure room. Choice D is incorrect because the gown should be removed after leaving the room to prevent transmission of pathogens to other areas.

2. A nurse on the medical-surgical unit is receiving reports on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client who is 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy and reports fullness in the throat should be assessed first. This client may be experiencing airway obstruction due to hematoma or swelling, making it a priority. Options A, B, and C have concerning findings as well, but airway compromise takes precedence over other issues.

3. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has schizophrenia and is starting therapy with clozapine. Which of the following is the highest priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition that leads to infections. Fever may indicate an underlying infection, a potentially life-threatening complication, and must be reported immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A (Constipation) is a common side effect of clozapine but is not as urgent as fever. Blurred vision (Choice B) and dry mouth (Choice D) are side effects of clozapine but are not indicative of a life-threatening condition like agranulocytosis.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has a prescription for filgrastim. The nurse should recognize that an increase in which of the following values indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Filgrastim is used to increase neutrophil production in clients undergoing chemotherapy or with bone marrow suppression. A rise in neutrophil count indicates the medication is working effectively to boost immune response. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as filgrastim primarily targets neutrophils, not erythrocytes, lymphocytes, or thrombocytes.

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