Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is at risk for falls. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as increasing the client's risk of falling?

• A. Normal gait
• B. Recent history of dizziness
• C. 20/20 vision
• D. Takes a multivitamin daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recent history of dizziness. A recent history of dizziness significantly increases the risk of falling, as dizziness can impair balance and coordination. Having a normal gait (choice A) and 20/20 vision (choice C) are not factors that directly increase the risk of falling. Taking a multivitamin daily (choice D) does not inherently contribute to an increased risk of falling unless it causes dizziness as a side effect, which is not specified in the question.

2. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate for the treatment of anemia. Which of the following instructions should be included in client teaching about this medication?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach
• B. Notify your provider if your stool becomes dark green
• C. Decrease dietary fiber intake while taking this medication
• D. Take prescribed antacids at the same time as this medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate for anemia is to take the medication on an empty stomach. This is because ferrous sulfate is best absorbed in an acidic environment, which is enhanced on an empty stomach. However, if the client experiences gastrointestinal side effects, they can take the medication with food. Choice B, notifying the provider if stool becomes dark green, is correct because dark or black stools are common with iron therapy and not a cause for concern. Choice C, decreasing dietary fiber intake, is incorrect as dietary fiber does not interfere with the absorption of ferrous sulfate. Choice D, taking prescribed antacids at the same time, is incorrect as antacids can decrease the absorption of ferrous sulfate.

3. A client has been prescribed vasopressin for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. What is the expected pharmacological action of this medication?

• A. To stimulate the pancreas to secrete insulin
• B. To slow the absorption of glucose in the intestine
• C. To increase reabsorption of water in the renal tubules
• D. To increase blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: To increase reabsorption of water in the renal tubules. Vasopressin mimics the action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by increasing the reabsorption of water in the renal tubules. This leads to decreased urine output, helping to manage symptoms of diabetes insipidus, which is characterized by excessive thirst and urination. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Vasopressin does not stimulate the pancreas to secrete insulin, slow the absorption of glucose in the intestine, or directly increase blood pressure.

4. What is an example of a culturally sensitive response from a healthcare provider when a patient mentions feeling uncomfortable with a treatment plan?

• A. Asking why they feel this way
• B. Explaining that the treatment is standard
• C. Inviting the patient to share concerns
• D. Offering alternative treatments

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inviting the patient to share concerns is an example of a culturally sensitive response as it acknowledges the patient's feelings and provides a safe space for them to express their discomfort. This approach shows respect for the patient's cultural beliefs and values by valuing their perspective. Choice A, asking why they feel this way, can be perceived as confrontational and may not encourage open communication. Choice B, explaining that the treatment is standard, dismisses the patient's feelings and does not address their discomfort. Choice D, offering alternative treatments, may be premature without fully understanding the patient's concerns first.

5. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Initiate additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques.
• B. Notify the provider that a dosage adjustment is needed.
• C. No action is needed at this time.
• D. Contact the provider to request an alternate method of pain management.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.

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