Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is in the emergency department monitoring the hydration status of a client receiving oral rehydration. What should the nurse intervene for?

• A. Heart rate 120/min
• B. Urine output 30 mL/hour
• C. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
• D. Skin turgor is normal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 120/min may indicate dehydration or inadequate hydration, prompting the need for IV fluid replacement. Elevated heart rate is a sensitive indicator of dehydration as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output. Urine output of 30 mL/hour is within the normal range (30 mL/hour is the minimum acceptable urine output for an adult). Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range. Normal skin turgor is a positive sign indicating adequate hydration.

2. A client is being educated by a nurse on how to use a PCA pump postoperatively. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?

• A. I should wait until the pain is severe before using the PCA pump.
• B. My family can press the button for me while I’m asleep.
• C. I will press the button when I start to feel pain.
• D. I will only press the button once per hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement indicates understanding because the client recognizes that they should use the PCA pump when they start to feel pain. Waiting for the pain to become severe is not recommended as it may lead to inadequate pain control. Option B is incorrect because only the client should control the PCA pump to ensure safety and appropriate dosing. Option D is also incorrect as there is no set limit on how often the button can be pressed, as it should be used as needed when pain is felt.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

• A. Allergy history
• B. Vital signs
• C. Renal function
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

4. A nurse is providing education to a client who is 28 weeks pregnant and at risk for preterm labor. Which of the following signs should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately?

• A. Lower back pain
• B. Shortness of breath
• C. Decreased fetal movement
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lower back pain, especially if accompanied by uterine contractions or pressure, can be a sign of preterm labor. The client should report this immediately to prevent complications or early delivery. Shortness of breath (Choice B), decreased fetal movement (Choice C), and nausea and vomiting (Choice D) can be common during pregnancy but are not typically associated with preterm labor. While they should be monitored, they are not immediate signs of concern for preterm labor.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will stop taking the medication when I feel better.
• B. I will avoid caffeine while taking this medication.
• C. I will wear sunscreen when going outside.
• D. I will drink plenty of fluids while on this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients should be instructed to complete the entire course of antibiotics, even if they start feeling better, to prevent antibiotic resistance and recurrence of infection.

Similar Questions