ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. A Pap test is recommended every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65.
- B. Pap tests are recommended following removal of the ovaries.
- C. Avoid having sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test.
- D. Viral infections cannot be detected by a Pap test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients should avoid sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test to ensure accurate results, as it can affect the sample. This is important for obtaining reliable results. Choice A is incorrect because a yearly Pap test is not the standard recommendation for all age groups; instead, it is typically every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65. Choice B is incorrect because Pap tests are not necessarily discontinued following removal of the ovaries; they may still be needed based on the individual's health history and provider recommendations. Choice D is incorrect because while Pap tests are primarily used to detect abnormal cervical cells and cervical cancer, they do not detect viral infections.
2. A client is prescribed insulin glargine. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do regarding administration of this medication?
- A. Inject insulin glargine 30 minutes before a meal.
- B. Shake the insulin vial before administration.
- C. Administer insulin glargine once daily at bedtime.
- D. Take insulin glargine with short-acting insulin.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer insulin glargine once daily at bedtime. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a basal level of insulin throughout the day. It should be given at the same time each day, usually at bedtime, to maintain a consistent blood sugar level. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Injecting insulin glargine before a meal (Choice A) is not necessary as it is a long-acting insulin. Shaking the insulin vial (Choice B) is not recommended as it may cause bubbles to form, affecting the accuracy of the dose. Taking insulin glargine with short-acting insulin (Choice D) is not a typical practice as insulin glargine is used for basal insulin coverage.
3. A nurse is completing an assessment of a newborn who is 2 hours old. Which of the following findings is indicative of cold stress?
- A. Respiratory rate of 60 per minute
- B. Jitteriness of the hands
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Bounding peripheral pulses
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Jitteriness of the hands is a classic sign of cold stress in newborns, indicating that the infant is having difficulty maintaining a stable body temperature. Cold stress can lead to hypoglycemia and increased oxygen consumption. The other options (A, C, and D) are not directly associated with cold stress in newborns. A respiratory rate of 60 per minute may be within the normal range for a newborn. Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) and bounding peripheral pulses are not specific signs of cold stress in newborns.
4. A client is receiving vancomycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Blood glucose levels
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. INR levels
- D. Liver function tests
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, meaning it can cause kidney damage. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is essential to assess kidney function and detect any signs of nephrotoxicity. Blood glucose levels (choice A) are not directly affected by vancomycin. INR levels (choice C) are typically monitored for clients on anticoagulants, not vancomycin. Liver function tests (choice D) are not primarily affected by vancomycin use; kidney function is of greater concern.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of an ABG performed on a client with chronic emphysema. Which of the following results suggests the need for further treatment?
- A. PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg
- B. PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg
- C. HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L
- D. pH level of 7.37
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg indicates hypercapnia, which is common in clients with emphysema but may require further treatment if it leads to respiratory acidosis or distress. Elevated PaCO2 levels can indicate inadequate ventilation and impaired gas exchange, potentially leading to respiratory acidosis. The other results fall within normal ranges or compensated values for a client with chronic emphysema and do not necessarily indicate the need for immediate intervention.
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