ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A client in respiratory distress who is on oxygen is being cared for by a nurse. What is the most appropriate short-term goal?
- A. Nasal cannula remains in place
- B. Client completes morning care
- C. Client verbalizes breathing improvement after lunch
- D. Client maintains oxygen saturation of 90% during the shift
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because maintaining oxygen saturation of 90% is a specific, measurable short-term goal that ensures adequate oxygenation. Choice A is not a goal focused on the client's physiological status but rather on the equipment. Choice B is related to activities of daily living and does not address the respiratory distress issue. Choice C is subjective and may not reflect the actual physiological improvement in the client's condition.
2. A client has a new prescription for oxcarbazepine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function
- B. Serum sodium levels
- C. Blood glucose
- D. Heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum sodium levels. Oxcarbazepine can lead to hyponatremia, making it crucial to monitor serum sodium levels. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with oxcarbazepine use. Blood glucose (choice C) monitoring is more relevant in medications affecting blood sugar levels. Heart rate (choice D) is not directly impacted by oxcarbazepine.
3. A healthcare professional is verifying nasogastric tube placement by the pH of aspirated gastric fluid. Which of the following pH values provides a good indication of correct tube placement?
- A. 2
- B. 5
- C. 7
- D. 9
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: '2'. Gastric contents with a pH between 0 and 4 provide a good indication of appropriate tube placement. A pH of 2 is within this range, indicating that the tube is correctly placed in the stomach. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because a pH of 5, 7, or 9 does not fall within the expected acidic pH range of gastric fluid.
4. A client with lactose intolerance, who has eliminated dairy products from the diet, should increase consumption of which of the following foods?
- A. Spinach
- B. Peanut butter
- C. Ground beef
- D. Carrots
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium, which is important for clients with lactose intolerance who are not consuming dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as spinach and are not the best choices for meeting the calcium needs of clients with lactose intolerance.
5. A nurse is assessing a client with pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?
- A. Paradoxical pulse
- B. Dependent edema
- C. Pericardial friction rub
- D. Substernal chest pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A paradoxical pulse is a sign of cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication of pericarditis that requires immediate intervention. It results from decreased cardiac output due to increased pressure in the pericardial sac. Reporting this finding promptly allows for timely treatment to prevent further deterioration. Dependent edema and substernal chest pain are common in pericarditis but are not as urgent as a paradoxical pulse. A pericardial friction rub is a classic finding in pericarditis and indicates inflammation but is not as critical as a paradoxical pulse.
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