ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of warfarin. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Verify INR levels
- B. Administer with food
- C. Monitor blood glucose levels
- D. Assess liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When administering warfarin, it is crucial to verify the patient's INR levels. INR monitoring is essential to ensure that the patient is receiving the correct dose of warfarin for their condition and to minimize the risk of bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because administering warfarin with food, monitoring blood glucose levels, and assessing liver function are not directly related to the safe administration and monitoring of warfarin therapy.
2. A nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following suggested foods should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. A peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread
- B. A sliced apple and red grapes
- C. A chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk
- D. A scrambled egg with cheddar cheese
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with phenylketonuria (PKU) must adhere to a strict low-phenylalanine diet to prevent neurological damage. Foods high in phenylalanine such as peanut butter, wheat bread, chocolate chip cookies, milk, scrambled eggs, and cheddar cheese should be avoided. Sliced apples and red grapes are low in phenylalanine, making them safe choices for individuals with PKU. Choice A (peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread), Choice C (chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk), and Choice D (scrambled egg with cheddar cheese) are all high in phenylalanine and should be avoided by individuals with PKU.
3. A nurse is teaching a client with mild persistent asthma about montelukast. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
- A. I will use this for asthma attacks.
- B. I should take this before exercise.
- C. This medication will decrease swelling and mucus production.
- D. I can stop this medication after 10 days.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that helps reduce swelling and mucus production in the airways, making it useful for long-term asthma management.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?
- A. Shivering
- B. Oliguria
- C. Bradypnea
- D. Constricted pupils
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not being adequately perfused, leading to reduced urine production. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia, not directly related to cardiac output. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) can be caused by medications or sympathetic nervous system stimulation but are not specific to decreased cardiac output.
5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for furosemide. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take my morning pills with food or milk.
- B. I will weigh myself every day.
- C. I will notify the nurse if I have muscle cramps.
- D. I will limit my intake of fish.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Furosemide is a diuretic that does not require a reduction in fish consumption. Therefore, the statement 'I will limit my intake of fish' indicates a misunderstanding of dietary considerations. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate actions related to furosemide therapy. Taking pills with food or milk can help reduce stomach upset, daily weight monitoring is crucial due to the diuretic effect of furosemide, and notifying the nurse about muscle cramps is important as it can be a sign of electrolyte imbalance, a potential side effect of furosemide.
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