Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum, has a deep-vein thrombosis, and is receiving heparin therapy via subcutaneous injections. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request a prescription for PRN aspirin from the provider.
• B. Massage the injection site thoroughly following administration.
• C. Instruct the client that they cannot breastfeed while receiving heparin.
• D. Administer the injection in the client's abdomen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should administer the injection in the abdomen, as this is a common site for subcutaneous heparin administration. Massaging the injection site can lead to bruising or discomfort and should be avoided. Instructing the client not to breastfeed while on heparin is inaccurate, as heparin does not pass into breast milk in significant amounts. Aspirin is contraindicated for clients on heparin due to the increased risk of bleeding, so requesting a prescription for PRN aspirin would not be appropriate in this situation.

2. A nurse is assisting with mass casualty triage following an explosion at a local factory. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. A client who has massive head trauma
• B. A client who has full-thickness burns to the face and trunk
• C. A client with indications of hypovolemic shock
• D. A client with an open fracture of the lower extremity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a mass casualty situation, the nurse should prioritize the client with indications of hypovolemic shock. Hypovolemic shock is an immediate life-threatening condition resulting from severe blood loss, which can lead to organ failure and death. Prompt identification and treatment of hypovolemic shock are crucial to prevent further deterioration. While clients with massive head trauma, full-thickness burns, and open fractures require urgent care, hypovolemic shock takes precedence due to its rapid progression to a critical state.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following findings indicates oxygen toxicity?

• A. Oxygen saturation 94%
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Wheezing
• D. Peripheral cyanosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased respiratory rate. In clients with COPD, especially when receiving oxygen therapy, a decreased respiratory rate is indicative of oxygen toxicity. This occurs because their respiratory drive is often dependent on low oxygen levels. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not necessarily indicate oxygen toxicity. Wheezing is more commonly associated with airway narrowing or constriction, while peripheral cyanosis is a sign of decreased oxygen levels in the peripheral tissues, not oxygen toxicity.

4. A client just received the first dose of lisinopril. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Place the client on cardiac monitoring
• B. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level
• C. Provide standby assistance when getting out of bed
• D. Encourage foods high in potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide standby assistance when getting out of bed. Lisinopril can cause first-dose hypotension, leading to dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. Standby assistance helps ensure the client's safety when mobilizing. Placing the client on cardiac monitoring (choice A) is not necessary unless there are specific indications for cardiac monitoring. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) is not directly related to the side effects of lisinopril. Encouraging foods high in potassium (choice D) is not the most immediate or appropriate intervention following the administration of lisinopril.

5. A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?

• A. Glasgow scale score of 15
• B. Blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm
• C. Report of dry mouth
• D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.

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