ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse is assessing a male adolescent client who has heart failure. Based on the client’s chart, which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Withhold spironolactone
- B. Administer ferrous sulfate
- C. Administer furosemide
- D. Withhold digoxin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic commonly used in heart failure to manage fluid retention, helping alleviate symptoms like edema and shortness of breath. Withholding spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, could lead to electrolyte imbalances. Administering ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia, not heart failure. Withholding digoxin, a medication used in heart failure to improve heart function, can worsen the client's condition.
2. A client is prescribed digoxin and has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer digoxin without any modifications
- B. Administer the medication at a lower dose
- C. Monitor serum potassium levels
- D. Discontinue the medication if potassium levels rise
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. In this case, the nurse should administer the digoxin without any modifications. Lowering the dose (Choice B) may not be necessary if the potassium level is not critically low. Monitoring serum potassium levels (Choice C) is important but should not delay the administration of digoxin. Discontinuing the medication (Choice D) is not the initial action to take unless the potassium levels become severely low and life-threatening.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a heart transplant. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Immunosuppressant medications need to be taken for up to 1 year
- B. Shortness of breath might be an indication of transplant rejection
- C. The surgical site will heal in 3 to 4 weeks after surgery
- D. Begin 45 minutes of moderate aerobic exercise per day following discharge
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because shortness of breath is an indication of transplant rejection, along with other manifestations like fatigue, edema, bradycardia, and hypotension. Choice A is incorrect because immunosuppressant medications are usually taken for life to prevent rejection. Choice C is incorrect as the surgical site may take longer to heal fully. Choice D is incorrect as the initiation of exercise post-heart transplant should be gradual and individualized based on the client's condition.
4. A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Dizziness
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.
5. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about stress management. Which of the following activities should the nurse recommend to reduce stress?
- A. Watching television
- B. Deep breathing exercises
- C. Drinking coffee
- D. Avoiding exercise
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Deep breathing exercises are effective in reducing stress by promoting relaxation and lowering heart rate, making them a recommended technique. Watching television may not actively reduce stress but can serve as a distraction. Drinking coffee, which contains caffeine, may increase anxiety levels. Avoiding exercise can lead to pent-up stress and tension rather than reducing it.
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