Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client to monitor for signs of toxicity?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Increased urination
• C. Tremors
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tremors. Lithium toxicity can present with symptoms such as tremors, nausea, and blurred vision. Tremors are a common early sign of lithium toxicity and should be monitored closely. While nausea and vomiting can also occur with lithium toxicity, tremors are more specific to lithium toxicity. Increased urination is not typically associated with lithium toxicity, and blurred vision is less common compared to tremors in this context.

2. A healthcare professional is planning a community education program about colorectal cancer. Which of the following risk factors should the professional identify as modifiable?

• A. Family history
• B. Smoking
• C. Age
• D. Gender

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smoking. Smoking is a modifiable risk factor for colorectal cancer. It is within an individual's control to quit smoking, thereby reducing their risk of developing colorectal cancer. Choices A, C, and D are non-modifiable risk factors. Family history, age, and gender are factors that individuals cannot change or control. While family history can influence risk, it is not something that can be modified. Age and gender are also non-modifiable factors when it comes to colorectal cancer risk.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of warfarin. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Verify INR levels
• B. Administer with food
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels
• D. Assess liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When administering warfarin, it is crucial to verify the patient's INR levels. INR monitoring is essential to ensure that the patient is receiving the correct dose of warfarin for their condition and to minimize the risk of bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because administering warfarin with food, monitoring blood glucose levels, and assessing liver function are not directly related to the safe administration and monitoring of warfarin therapy.

4. A nurse is providing education to a client about a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Monitor for increased heart rate
• B. Take the medication at the same time every day
• C. It should be stopped abruptly
• D. Avoid potassium-rich foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take the medication at the same time every day.' Clients should take digoxin at the same time each day to maintain consistent therapeutic levels, enhancing the drug's effectiveness and minimizing fluctuations in blood concentration. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin, as a medication, may actually help in controlling the heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as digoxin should never be stopped abruptly due to the risk of rebound effects and worsening of the condition. Choice D is unrelated to digoxin therapy, as it is more relevant to medications like potassium-sparing diuretics.

5. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and has preeclampsia is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following is the priority assessment?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Urinary output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Blood pressure is the priority assessment in clients with preeclampsia because hypertension is the primary symptom of the condition. Elevated blood pressure increases the risk of complications such as eclampsia and placental abruption. Assessing the blood pressure helps in monitoring the severity of the preeclampsia and guiding appropriate interventions. While monitoring the client's level of consciousness, deep tendon reflexes, and urinary output are important, they are secondary assessments in the context of preeclampsia.

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