ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A client is being educated by a nurse about the use of carbidopa-levodopa. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It will cure Parkinson's disease
- B. Monitor for dyskinesia
- C. It can be taken with food
- D. It is an opioid medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Monitor for dyskinesia.' Carbidopa-levodopa can cause dyskinesia as a side effect, characterized by involuntary movements. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa helps manage symptoms of Parkinson's disease but does not cure it. Choice C is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa is not an opioid medication.
2. A healthcare provider is educating a patient on the use of alendronate. Which of the following should be included?
- A. Take it with food
- B. Take it once a week
- C. It can be taken at bedtime
- D. Monitor for increased appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take it once a week.' Alendronate is typically taken once a week to treat osteoporosis. It should be taken on an empty stomach in the morning with a full glass of water. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should be taken in the morning, not at bedtime. Choice D is unrelated to alendronate use and not a common side effect associated with this medication.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?
- A. Shivering
- B. Oliguria
- C. Bradypnea
- D. Constricted pupils
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.
4. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. What action should the nurse take if the client develops toxicity?
- A. Position the client supine
- B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5%
- C. Administer calcium gluconate IV
- D. Administer methylergonovine IM
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, calcium gluconate is the antidote as it helps reverse the effects. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) may not directly address magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering dextrose 5% (Choice B) is not the correct intervention for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine IM (Choice D) is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.
5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a heart transplant. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Immunosuppressant medications need to be taken for up to 1 year
- B. Shortness of breath might be an indication of transplant rejection
- C. The surgical site will heal in 3 to 4 weeks after surgery
- D. Begin 45 minutes of moderate aerobic exercise per day following discharge
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because shortness of breath is an indication of transplant rejection, along with other manifestations like fatigue, edema, bradycardia, and hypotension. Choice A is incorrect because immunosuppressant medications are usually taken for life to prevent rejection. Choice C is incorrect as the surgical site may take longer to heal fully. Choice D is incorrect as the initiation of exercise post-heart transplant should be gradual and individualized based on the client's condition.
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