ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A client is being educated by a nurse about the use of carbidopa-levodopa. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It will cure Parkinson's disease
- B. Monitor for dyskinesia
- C. It can be taken with food
- D. It is an opioid medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Monitor for dyskinesia.' Carbidopa-levodopa can cause dyskinesia as a side effect, characterized by involuntary movements. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa helps manage symptoms of Parkinson's disease but does not cure it. Choice C is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa is not an opioid medication.
2. A client who is 32 weeks pregnant and has a diagnosis of placenta previa is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Limit physical activity
- B. Monitor fetal movements daily
- C. Call the healthcare provider if contractions begin
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients diagnosed with placenta previa are at an increased risk of bleeding and preterm labor. Therefore, it is essential for them to limit physical activity to prevent complications. Monitoring fetal movements daily helps in assessing the well-being of the fetus. Additionally, notifying the healthcare provider if contractions begin is crucial as it could be a sign of preterm labor. Therefore, all of the instructions (limiting physical activity, monitoring fetal movements, and calling the healthcare provider if contractions begin) are necessary for managing placenta previa effectively. Choices A, B, and C are all correct instructions for a client with placenta previa.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?
- A. Shivering
- B. Oliguria
- C. Bradypnea
- D. Constricted pupils
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not being adequately perfused, leading to reduced urine production. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia, not directly related to cardiac output. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) can be caused by medications or sympathetic nervous system stimulation but are not specific to decreased cardiac output.
4. A nurse is teaching a client with mild persistent asthma about montelukast. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
- A. I will use this for asthma attacks.
- B. I should take this before exercise.
- C. This medication will decrease swelling and mucus production.
- D. I can stop this medication after 10 days.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that helps reduce swelling and mucus production in the airways, making it useful for long-term asthma management.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about dietary modifications for a low-sodium diet. Which of the following should the nurse include?
- A. Limit intake of processed foods
- B. Increase intake of fresh fruits and vegetables
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Monitor for allergic reactions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to limit intake of processed foods. Processed foods are often high in sodium, which goes against the goal of a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits and vegetables are recommended for a low-sodium diet due to their natural low sodium content. The use of accessory muscles and monitoring for allergic reactions are not related to dietary modifications for a low-sodium diet.
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