ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is planning to delegate client assignments to the assistive personnel. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the healthcare provider to delegate?
- A. Adjusting the flow rate of the client's oxygen tank.
- B. Collecting a urine sample.
- C. Measuring the client's pain level.
- D. Transporting a client to x-ray.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Transporting a client to x-ray.' This task is appropriate for delegation to assistive personnel as it involves transferring the client safely from one location to another, which does not require the specialized skills of a healthcare provider. Adjusting the flow rate of the client's oxygen tank (Choice A) involves making clinical decisions that should be done by a licensed healthcare provider. Collecting a urine sample (Choice B) and measuring the client's pain level (Choice C) require critical thinking and assessment skills that are typically within the scope of practice of licensed healthcare providers, not assistive personnel.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Infuse the PRBCs over 8 hours.
- B. Verify the client's blood type and Rh factor.
- C. Administer the PRBCs through a 24-gauge catheter.
- D. Administer the PRBCs with lactated Ringer's solution.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the client's blood type and Rh factor is crucial before administering blood products to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions. Option A is incorrect because PRBCs are typically infused over a specific time frame based on hospital policy and client condition, not necessarily over 8 hours. Option C is incorrect as PRBCs are usually administered through a larger gauge catheter to prevent hemolysis. Option D is incorrect because PRBCs are typically administered with normal saline and not lactated Ringer's solution.
3. Which of the following lab values indicates a patient on warfarin is at a therapeutic level?
- A. INR of 1.1
- B. PT of 12 seconds
- C. INR of 2.5
- D. Platelet count of 150,000
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An INR of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for a patient on warfarin. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most accurate way to monitor and adjust warfarin doses. An INR of 1.1 (Choice A) is below the therapeutic range, indicating a need for an increased dose. PT (Prothrombin Time) of 12 seconds (Choice B) is not specific for warfarin therapy monitoring. Platelet count (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.
4. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse expect to include?
- A. Encourage group activities to promote socialization.
- B. Encourage the client to take frequent naps throughout the day.
- C. Provide the client with frequent high-calorie snacks.
- D. Promote physical activity during mealtimes to stimulate appetite.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Providing high-calorie snacks is essential when caring for a client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder because they often have increased energy expenditure and may not eat adequately due to their heightened activity levels. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may overwhelm the client further during this phase. Encouraging frequent naps (Choice B) contradicts the need to manage increased energy levels. Promoting physical activity during mealtimes (Choice D) may not be appropriate as it can distract the client from eating, which is crucial in meeting their nutritional needs.
5. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid consuming dairy products.
- B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Limit fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods when taking furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, so consuming potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges can help maintain adequate potassium levels. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to avoid consuming dairy products. Choice C is incorrect because while fluid intake may need to be monitored, the general instruction is not to limit fluids to prevent dehydration. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually best taken during the day to avoid disrupting sleep with frequent urination.
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