ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation is being taught by a nurse about managing heartburn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Eat small, frequent meals.
- B. Drink a glass of milk with each meal.
- C. Lie down after meals.
- D. Drink plenty of fluids with meals.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for managing heartburn during pregnancy is to eat small, frequent meals. This helps prevent heartburn by reducing gastric distention. Option B, drinking a glass of milk with each meal, may exacerbate heartburn in some individuals due to its fat content. Option C, lying down after meals, can worsen heartburn as it allows stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus. Option D, drinking plenty of fluids with meals, can also contribute to heartburn by distending the stomach. Therefore, the best advice for managing heartburn during pregnancy is to eat small, frequent meals.
2. What is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer anticoagulants
- C. Prepare for surgery
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism to improve oxygenation levels. In pulmonary embolism, there is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries, leading to decreased oxygen exchange. Administering oxygen helps increase oxygen saturation levels. Anticoagulants (Choice B) are essential in the treatment of pulmonary embolism but are not the initial priority intervention. Surgery (Choice C) is not typically the first-line treatment for pulmonary embolism. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) is important but administering oxygen takes precedence as the immediate action to address hypoxemia.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Infuse the PRBCs over 8 hours.
- B. Verify the client's blood type and Rh factor.
- C. Administer the PRBCs through a 24-gauge catheter.
- D. Administer the PRBCs with lactated Ringer's solution.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the client's blood type and Rh factor is crucial before administering blood products to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions. Option A is incorrect because PRBCs are typically infused over a specific time frame based on hospital policy and client condition, not necessarily over 8 hours. Option C is incorrect as PRBCs are usually administered through a larger gauge catheter to prevent hemolysis. Option D is incorrect because PRBCs are typically administered with normal saline and not lactated Ringer's solution.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who speaks a language different from the nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request an interpreter of a different sex from the client
- B. Request a family member or friend to interpret information for the client
- C. Direct attention toward the interpreter when speaking to the client
- D. Review the facility policy about the use of an interpreter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client who speaks a different language is to review the facility policy about the use of an interpreter. This ensures compliance with best practices for communication when using interpreters, maintaining accuracy and confidentiality. Requesting an interpreter of a different sex from the client (Choice A) is not relevant to effective communication. Asking a family member or friend to interpret (Choice B) can lead to misinterpretation or breach of confidentiality. Directing attention toward the interpreter (Choice C) is not as crucial as understanding the facility's policy on interpreter use.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?
- A. Maternal fever.
- B. Fetal anemia.
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
- D. Chorioamnionitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.
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