Nursing Elites

1. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation is being taught by a nurse about managing heartburn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat small, frequent meals.
• B. Drink a glass of milk with each meal.
• C. Lie down after meals.
• D. Drink plenty of fluids with meals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for managing heartburn during pregnancy is to eat small, frequent meals. This helps prevent heartburn by reducing gastric distention. Option B, drinking a glass of milk with each meal, may exacerbate heartburn in some individuals due to its fat content. Option C, lying down after meals, can worsen heartburn as it allows stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus. Option D, drinking plenty of fluids with meals, can also contribute to heartburn by distending the stomach. Therefore, the best advice for managing heartburn during pregnancy is to eat small, frequent meals.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serum calcium level of 8 mg/dL.
• B. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.
• C. Heart rate of 110/min.
• D. Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A heart rate of 110/min is elevated and may indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication following a thyroidectomy. Elevated heart rate can be a sign of hypocalcemia due to the close relationship between calcium levels and cardiac function. Option A, serum calcium level of 8 mg/dL, is within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and would not be a cause for concern post-thyroidectomy. Option B, urine output of 60 mL/hr, is within the normal range for urine output and not typically a priority finding post-thyroidectomy. Option D, a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F), is slightly elevated but not a critical finding post-thyroidectomy unless accompanied by other symptoms.

3. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?

• A. Chlamydia
• B. Human papillomavirus
• C. Candidiasis
• D. Herpes simplex virus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that is considered a nationally notifiable infectious disease, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to public health authorities. Reporting such cases is crucial for disease surveillance and implementing appropriate control measures. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.

4. A client with osteoporosis needs to increase calcium intake. Which of the following foods should be recommended by the nurse?

• A. Carrots
• B. Broccoli
• C. Chicken
• D. Bananas

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Broccoli. Broccoli is rich in calcium and is a suitable food to recommend to clients with osteoporosis to increase their calcium intake. Carrots, chicken, and bananas are not as high in calcium content compared to broccoli and therefore not the most appropriate choices for increasing calcium intake in clients with osteoporosis.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on loop diuretics?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Loop diuretics can cause potassium depletion leading to hypokalemia, which is particularly concerning as it can result in cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with loop diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less common in patients on loop diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is not a typical electrolyte imbalance associated with loop diuretics.

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