a nurse is teaching a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation about management of heartburn which of the following instructions should the nurse includ
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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation is being taught by a nurse about managing heartburn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for managing heartburn during pregnancy is to eat small, frequent meals. This helps prevent heartburn by reducing gastric distention. Option B, drinking a glass of milk with each meal, may exacerbate heartburn in some individuals due to its fat content. Option C, lying down after meals, can worsen heartburn as it allows stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus. Option D, drinking plenty of fluids with meals, can also contribute to heartburn by distending the stomach. Therefore, the best advice for managing heartburn during pregnancy is to eat small, frequent meals.

2. When managing blood pressure at home, which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching provided by a nurse for hypertension?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because sitting quietly for 5 minutes before measuring blood pressure ensures an accurate reading and helps monitor hypertension. Choice A is incorrect as medications for hypertension should be taken as prescribed, not based on symptoms like dizziness. Choice B is not ideal as blood pressure should be checked more frequently, preferably daily. Choice C is incorrect as stopping medication abruptly once blood pressure is normal can lead to rebound hypertension.

3. What is the best nursing action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best nursing action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath as it helps alleviate the symptoms and improve oxygenation. Providing oxygen addresses the primary issue of inadequate oxygen levels in the body, which can be a life-threatening situation. Administering bronchodilators (choice B) may be appropriate for specific respiratory conditions like asthma but is not the initial intervention for all causes of shortness of breath. Repositioning the patient (choice C) can sometimes help improve breathing, but in a patient experiencing significant shortness of breath, immediate oxygen therapy is crucial. Providing IV fluids (choice D) is not indicated as the first-line intervention for shortness of breath unless there is a specific underlying cause such as dehydration.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests is an indicator of long-term disease management?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) is the most accurate test for long-term management of blood glucose levels in individuals with diabetes mellitus. HbA1c reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months, providing valuable information on the effectiveness of treatment and disease control. Postprandial blood glucose, glucose tolerance test, and fasting blood glucose are essential for monitoring blood glucose levels at specific times but do not offer the same insight into long-term disease management as HbA1c.

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