a nurse is caring for a client who has anemia and a hemoglobin level of 8 gdl which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has anemia and a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea. Anemia leads to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity due to low hemoglobin levels, prompting the body to increase respiratory rate to enhance oxygen uptake. Jaundice (choice A) is associated with liver issues, not anemia. Bradycardia (choice B) and Hypertension (choice D) are not typically expected findings in clients with anemia; instead, tachycardia may occur as the body compensates for the decreased oxygen delivery.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytopenia can lead to serious bleeding complications, so it is crucial to address this finding promptly. A low white blood cell count (choice A) may indicate neutropenia but is not as immediately life-threatening as severe thrombocytopenia. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL (choice B) would require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing a critically low platelet count. A serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L (choice D) is on the lower side of normal but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's safety compared to severe thrombocytopenia.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with COPD is to teach pursed-lip breathing. This technique helps improve oxygenation and reduce dyspnea by promoting better air exchange in the lungs. Encouraging deep breaths may not be suitable for clients with COPD as it can lead to air trapping. Administering oxygen is important in COPD, but teaching pursed-lip breathing is a more direct intervention to help the client manage their condition. Limiting fluid intake is not a standard intervention for COPD and may not be relevant to improving respiratory status.

5. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with hyperkalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer calcium gluconate. In hyperkalemia, the priority is to protect the heart from potential complications like arrhythmias. Calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment as it stabilizes the cardiac cell membrane. Insulin (Choice B) and sodium bicarbonate (Choice C) can be used in conjunction with other treatments to shift potassium into cells, but calcium gluconate is the priority. Administering a diuretic (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia and can even worsen the condition by reducing potassium excretion.

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