ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has end-stage osteoporosis and is reporting severe pain. The client’s respiratory rate is 14 per minute. Which of the following medications should the nurse prioritize administering?
- A. Promethazine
- B. Hydromorphone
- C. Ketorolac
- D. Amitriptyline
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hydromorphone, an opioid, is the most appropriate option for managing severe pain in this context. Opioids provide fast-acting relief for acute pain associated with advanced osteoporosis. Promethazine (Choice A) is an antihistamine and not indicated for pain relief. Ketorolac (Choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may increase the risk of bleeding and is not recommended for severe pain management. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant that is not the first-line treatment for severe acute pain.
2. A client is prescribed insulin glargine. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do regarding administration of this medication?
- A. Inject insulin glargine 30 minutes before a meal.
- B. Shake the insulin vial before administration.
- C. Administer insulin glargine once daily at bedtime.
- D. Take insulin glargine with short-acting insulin.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer insulin glargine once daily at bedtime. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a basal level of insulin throughout the day. It should be given at the same time each day, usually at bedtime, to maintain a consistent blood sugar level. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Injecting insulin glargine before a meal (Choice A) is not necessary as it is a long-acting insulin. Shaking the insulin vial (Choice B) is not recommended as it may cause bubbles to form, affecting the accuracy of the dose. Taking insulin glargine with short-acting insulin (Choice D) is not a typical practice as insulin glargine is used for basal insulin coverage.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medication metformin with a client who has diabetes. Which of the following side effects should the nurse discuss?
- A. Gastrointestinal upset
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Weight loss
- D. Frequent urination
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gastrointestinal upset. Metformin can cause gastrointestinal upset, especially when first starting therapy. It is important to take it with food to reduce these effects. Increased appetite (choice B) and weight loss (choice C) are not common side effects of metformin but may occur due to improved blood sugar control. Frequent urination (choice D) is a symptom of uncontrolled diabetes and not a side effect of metformin.
4. A nurse is caring for a client recovering from bowel surgery who has a nasogastric (NG) tube connected to low intermittent suction. Which of the following assessment findings should indicate to the nurse that the NG tube may not be functioning properly?
- A. Drainage fluid is greenish-yellow
- B. Aspirate pH of 3
- C. Abdominal rigidity
- D. Air bubbles noted in the NG tube
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Abdominal rigidity can indicate a serious complication, such as a blockage or infection, requiring immediate intervention to determine if the NG tube is functioning properly. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of a malfunctioning NG tube. Greenish-yellow drainage fluid may be normal, an aspirate pH of 3 is within the expected range for gastric contents, and air bubbles in the NG tube are not abnormal as long as they are moving.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the left lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Position the client with the affected extremity higher than the heart
- B. Administer acetaminophen for pain
- C. Massage the affected extremity every 4 hours
- D. Withhold heparin IV infusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to withhold heparin IV infusion. The nurse should withhold heparin if there are signs of complications, such as bleeding, or if there are contraindications to continuing anticoagulation therapy. Positioning the client with the affected extremity higher than the heart helps reduce swelling and improve blood flow. Administering acetaminophen for pain management can be appropriate, but it is not the priority in this situation. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge the clot and lead to serious complications, so it should be avoided.
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