ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A client newly diagnosed with osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about preventing complications. Which food should the nurse recommend?
- A. Fried chicken
- B. Whole milk
- C. Oatmeal
- D. Bacon
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Oatmeal is an excellent recommendation for clients with osteoporosis due to its richness in fiber and nutrients, making it a heart-healthy and bone-friendly choice. Fried chicken (Choice A) is high in unhealthy fats and lacks the nutrients needed for bone health. Whole milk (Choice B) contains calcium but can be high in saturated fats, which may not be the best choice for individuals with osteoporosis. Bacon (Choice D) is high in saturated fats and sodium, which can have negative effects on bone health and overall well-being.
2. A nurse is preparing to assist a provider with the insertion of a nontunneled percutaneous central venous catheter into a client’s subclavian vein. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Position the client in a high-Fowler’s position
- B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
- C. Place a rolled towel under the client’s neck
- D. Assist the client into a side-lying position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when assisting with the insertion of a nontunneled percutaneous central venous catheter into the subclavian vein is to place the client in Trendelenburg position. This position helps distend the veins and reduces the risk of air embolism during the insertion procedure. Option A, positioning the client in a high-Fowler’s position, would not be appropriate as it does not facilitate venous distention. Option C, placing a rolled towel under the client’s neck, is not directly related to the procedure and does not serve a specific purpose in this context. Option D, assisting the client into a side-lying position, is also not the correct choice as Trendelenburg position is preferred for this procedure to aid in vein distention.
3. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Respiratory rate
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Apical pulse
- D. Urine output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apical pulse. Digoxin's primary effect is to strengthen the force of the heart's contractions and slow the heart rate. Monitoring the apical pulse is crucial in evaluating the effectiveness of digoxin as it helps assess the medication's impact on the heart's function. Option A, respiratory rate, is not directly related to digoxin's mechanism of action and is not the most appropriate parameter to monitor for this medication. Option B, blood pressure, while important, may not be as sensitive as the apical pulse in assessing the effectiveness of digoxin. Option D, urine output, is more indicative of kidney function and fluid balance, rather than the direct effectiveness of digoxin in heart failure.
4. A nurse is educating a client about caloric intake and weight reduction. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.
- B. If I eat 450 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
- C. If I eat 250 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
- D. If I eat 300 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.' This statement is accurate because a reduction of 500 calories per day typically results in a weight loss of 1 pound per week. This is based on the principle that a calorie deficit of 3,500 calories equals about 1 pound of body fat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the established relationship between calorie reduction and weight loss. Eating 450 fewer calories per day would not lead to a weight loss of 2 pounds per week; similarly, reducing calories by 250 or 300 per day would not result in losing 2 pounds or 1 pound per week, respectively.
5. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Low potassium
- D. Low magnesium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have impaired ability to activate vitamin D, leading to decreased production of calcitriol. Calcitriol is essential for calcium absorption in the intestines. Therefore, hypocalcemia is a common finding in chronic kidney disease. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Low potassium and low magnesium are possible electrolyte imbalances in chronic kidney disease, but they are not as directly related to the impaired activation of vitamin D as hypocalcemia.
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