ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional include in the plan of care?
- A. Apply ice packs to the affected extremity.
- B. Encourage ambulation every hour.
- C. Elevate the affected leg when in bed.
- D. Massage the affected area to improve circulation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the affected leg is a crucial intervention in the care of a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This position helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return, which can alleviate symptoms associated with DVT. Applying ice packs (Choice A) may worsen the condition by causing vasoconstriction. Encouraging ambulation (Choice B) can dislodge the clot and lead to fatal complications. Massaging the affected area (Choice D) can also dislodge the clot and is contraindicated in DVT.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of escitalopram. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?
- A. Mood changes
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Heart rate
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for mood changes. When administering escitalopram, it is crucial to evaluate mood changes first because the medication may take some time to demonstrate its full effects on the patient's mood. Assessing blood pressure, heart rate, or liver function is not the priority when administering escitalopram, as these parameters are not directly impacted acutely by this medication.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. The client has a peripheral IV and has a prescription for an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL with 40 mEq potassium chloride to infuse over 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Teach the client to report findings of IV extravasation
- B. Evaluate the patency of the IV
- C. Consult with the pharmacist about the prescription
- D. Verify the prescription with the provider
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority action is to verify the prescription with the provider. Verifying the prescription ensures patient safety by preventing fluid volume overload and dysrhythmias, which can result from infusing potassium too rapidly. Teaching the client about IV extravasation, evaluating IV patency, and consulting with the pharmacist are important but should come after verifying the prescription to ensure the ordered treatment is appropriate and safe for the client's condition.
4. A client is at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to increase in their diet?
- A. Yogurt
- B. Apples
- C. Raisins
- D. Cheddar cheese
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, which can help prevent or address iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A) and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. While apples (Choice B) are a healthy fruit, they do not contain as much iron as raisins.
5. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about contraindications to ceftriaxone. The nurse should include a severe allergy to which of the following medications as a contraindication to ceftriaxone?
- A. Gentamicin
- B. Clindamycin
- C. Piperacillin
- D. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin, and individuals with a penicillin allergy (such as Piperacillin) may have cross-sensitivity, making it contraindicated. Gentamicin (Choice A) belongs to the aminoglycoside class, not related to cephalosporins. Clindamycin (Choice B) is a lincosamide antibiotic and is not typically associated with cross-allergies to cephalosporins. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Choice D) is a sulfonamide antibiotic, also not directly related to ceftriaxone.
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