ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A community health nurse is reviewing primary prevention for West Nile virus with a group of patients in a rural health clinic. What instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Eliminate areas of standing water.
- B. Wear a mask when outdoors.
- C. Ensure food is cooked thoroughly.
- D. Avoid contact with sick individuals.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Eliminate areas of standing water.' Standing water provides breeding grounds for mosquitoes, which spread West Nile virus. By eliminating standing water, individuals can reduce the risk of mosquito breeding and the transmission of the virus. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Wearing a mask when outdoors, ensuring food is cooked thoroughly, and avoiding contact with sick individuals are not directly related to primary prevention strategies for West Nile virus.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of ampicillin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer it with food
- B. Check for penicillin allergy
- C. Monitor liver function
- D. Administer it intramuscularly
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Check for penicillin allergy.' Before administering ampicillin, it is crucial to assess the patient for any history of penicillin allergy. This is essential to prevent an adverse allergic reaction, as ampicillin belongs to the penicillin class of antibiotics. Administering ampicillin with food (Choice A) is not a standard requirement and does not impact its effectiveness. Monitoring liver function (Choice C) is not directly related to the immediate pre-administration assessment for ampicillin. Administering ampicillin intramuscularly (Choice D) is not typically the route of administration for this antibiotic, as it is usually given intravenously or orally.
3. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Low potassium
- D. Low magnesium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have impaired ability to activate vitamin D, leading to decreased production of calcitriol. Calcitriol is essential for calcium absorption in the intestines. Therefore, hypocalcemia is a common finding in chronic kidney disease. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Low potassium and low magnesium are possible electrolyte imbalances in chronic kidney disease, but they are not as directly related to the impaired activation of vitamin D as hypocalcemia.
4. A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Dizziness
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed furosemide. Which of the following foods should the nurse encourage the client to include in their diet?
- A. Table salt
- B. Egg yolks
- C. White wine
- D. Oranges
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, so clients should consume potassium-rich foods like oranges to prevent hypokalemia. Oranges are a good source of potassium. Table salt, egg yolks, and white wine do not provide significant amounts of potassium and are not beneficial for a client taking furosemide.
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