a nurse is assessing a client who had a stroke and is showing signs of dysphagia which finding indicates this condition
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A nurse is assessing a client who had a stroke and is showing signs of dysphagia. Which finding indicates this condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abnormal mouth movements are a key sign of dysphagia, a condition commonly seen in stroke clients. Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing, which can manifest as abnormal movements of the mouth during eating or drinking. In stroke patients, dysphagia increases the risk of aspiration, where food or liquids enter the airway instead of the esophagus, leading to potential complications such as pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are not directly indicative of dysphagia. Inability to stand without assistance may indicate motor deficits, paralysis of the right arm suggests a neurological impairment, and loss of appetite can be a non-specific symptom in many conditions but does not specifically point to dysphagia.

2. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is being taught about the signs of preterm labor. Which of the following should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Regular contractions. Regular contractions before 37 weeks of gestation are a significant sign of preterm labor. It is essential for clients to be aware of this symptom and report it promptly to their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sudden weight loss, shortness of breath, and vaginal spotting are not typical signs of preterm labor. Teaching clients about the specific signs of preterm labor can help in early detection and intervention, ultimately improving outcomes for both the client and the baby.

3. A client has been prescribed vasopressin for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. What is the expected pharmacological action of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: To increase reabsorption of water in the renal tubules. Vasopressin mimics the action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by increasing the reabsorption of water in the renal tubules. This leads to decreased urine output, helping to manage symptoms of diabetes insipidus, which is characterized by excessive thirst and urination. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Vasopressin does not stimulate the pancreas to secrete insulin, slow the absorption of glucose in the intestine, or directly increase blood pressure.

4. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension about dietary modifications to help control blood pressure. Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend as the best choice for the client to include in their diet?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A low sodium diet is recommended for a client who has hypertension. Therefore, the nurse should recommend 3 oz of chicken breast as the best choice for the client's diet because it contains 30 – 90 mg of sodium. Choice A, 1 packet of reconstituted dry onion soup, and Choice B, 3 oz of lean cured ham, are high in sodium content, which is not suitable for a client with hypertension. Choice D, 1/2 cup of canned baked beans, is also high in sodium, making it a less suitable choice compared to 3 oz of chicken breast.

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