Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a femur fracture and is in skeletal traction. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Clear fluid drainage from the pin sites
• B. Client reporting intermittent muscle spasms
• C. Client reporting severe pain despite receiving analgesics
• D. The traction weights are hanging freely

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Severe pain that is not relieved by analgesics may indicate neurovascular compromise or other complications and requires immediate attention by the provider. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because clear fluid drainage from the pin sites is expected in skeletal traction, intermittent muscle spasms are common in this situation, and traction weights hanging freely indicate proper traction alignment.

2. A client with a history of asthma is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Respiratory status
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory status. When caring for a client with asthma, it is essential to monitor their respiratory status to detect any changes in breathing or signs of airway obstruction. Monitoring heart rate (choice A) may be important in some situations but is not the priority when managing asthma. Blood glucose levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are not directly related to asthma and would not be the primary focus of monitoring for a client with this condition.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?

• A. 2100
• B. 900
• C. 1300
• D. 1800

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of sertraline. Which of the following should the healthcare professional assess first?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Heart rate
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Mood changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering sertraline, assessing blood pressure is crucial as this medication can potentially affect blood pressure levels. Monitoring blood pressure before giving sertraline helps ensure patient safety and allows for appropriate interventions if any significant changes are noted. Heart rate, respiratory rate, and mood changes are important assessments but are not typically the first priority when administering sertraline. While heart rate and respiratory rate can also be affected by sertraline, blood pressure assessment is a higher priority due to the medication's known effects on blood pressure regulation.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Proteinuria
• C. Nasal congestion
• D. Visual disturbances

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Gentamicin is known to cause nephrotoxicity as an adverse effect. Proteinuria, which is the presence of excess proteins in the urine, may indicate kidney damage from the medication. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients receiving gentamicin. Choice A, hypoglycemia, is not a typical adverse effect of gentamicin. Choices C and D, nasal congestion and visual disturbances, are not commonly associated with gentamicin use or its adverse effects.

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