ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a femur fracture and is in skeletal traction. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Clear fluid drainage from the pin sites
- B. Client reporting intermittent muscle spasms
- C. Client reporting severe pain despite receiving analgesics
- D. The traction weights are hanging freely
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Severe pain that is not relieved by analgesics may indicate neurovascular compromise or other complications and requires immediate attention by the provider. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because clear fluid drainage from the pin sites is expected in skeletal traction, intermittent muscle spasms are common in this situation, and traction weights hanging freely indicate proper traction alignment.
2. A nurse is teaching a client about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for the screening of colorectal cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. “Your provider will use stool samples from your bowel movement to perform the test.”
- B. “Your provider will prescribe a stimulant laxative prior to the procedure to cleanse the bowel.”
- C. “You should begin biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at 50 years old.”
- D. “You should avoid taking corticosteroids prior to testing.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid corticosteroids and vitamin C prior to testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect because stool samples from bowel movements, not from digital rectal examinations, are used for FOBT. Choice B is incorrect because a stimulant laxative is not typically prescribed before FOBT; rather, the client is instructed to follow specific dietary restrictions. Choice C is incorrect because biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening usually begins at 50 years old, not 40.
3. A client with type 1 DM is being taught about hypoglycemia by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. “Exercise decreases the risk of hypoglycemia.”
- B. “I should skip my insulin if I don't eat.”
- C. “I can drink 4 oz of regular soda if my blood sugar is low.”
- D. “Oral diabetic medications do not lead to hypoglycemia; only insulin does.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client should have a quick-acting source of 15 g of carbohydrates to treat hypoglycemic episodes, such as 4 oz of regular soda. Choice A is incorrect because while exercise can help manage blood sugar levels, it can also increase the risk of hypoglycemia if not properly managed. Choice B is incorrect as skipping insulin when not eating can lead to hyperglycemia, not prevent hypoglycemia. Choice D is incorrect because certain oral diabetic medications can indeed cause hypoglycemia, not just insulin.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Decreased appetite
- C. Fatigue
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct! In a client with congestive heart failure, peripheral edema, decreased appetite, and fatigue are important signs to monitor as they can indicate worsening heart failure. Peripheral edema is a common sign of fluid retention due to the heart's inability to pump effectively, decreased appetite may indicate worsening heart function, and fatigue can be a result of inadequate cardiac output. Monitoring all these signs is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one symptom may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's condition.
5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Monitor for increased blood pressure
- B. Increase intake of high-potassium foods
- C. Expect an increase in swelling in the hands and feet
- D. Take the second dose at bedtime
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Increase intake of high-potassium foods." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. To prevent this adverse effect, the client should increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide typically leads to decreased blood pressure, not increased. Choice C is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because the second dose of furosemide should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia.
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