Nursing Elites

1. During triage following a mass casualty event, which client should be prioritized?

• A. A client with massive head trauma
• B. A client with full-thickness burns to the face and trunk
• C. A client showing signs of hypovolemic shock
• D. A client with an open fracture of the lower extremity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During triage after a mass casualty event, the client showing signs of hypovolemic shock should be prioritized. Hypovolemic shock is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention to restore circulation and prevent death. While clients with head trauma, burns, and fractures also need urgent care, hypovolemic shock poses an immediate threat to life and must be addressed first to stabilize the client's condition.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings requires intervention by the nurse?

• A. Tidaling with spontaneous respirations
• B. Drainage collection chamber is 1/3 full
• C. 1 cm of water present in the water seal chamber
• D. Suction chamber pressure of -20 cm H2O

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. There should be 2 cm of water in the water seal chamber of the chest tube system. A level of 1 cm may indicate a leak or compromised functionality that requires intervention. Choices A, B, and D are not findings that necessarily require immediate intervention. Tidaling with spontaneous respirations is an expected finding, the drainage collection chamber being 1/3 full is within normal limits, and a suction chamber pressure of -20 cm H2O indicates appropriate suction for chest drainage.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of dehydration. Which of the following should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Dry mucous membranes
• C. Decreased urination
• D. Both B and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Signs of dehydration include dry mucous membranes and decreased urination, among other symptoms. Bradycardia is not a typical sign of dehydration; instead, tachycardia (increased heart rate) is more commonly associated with dehydration. Therefore, option A is incorrect. While dry mucous membranes and decreased urination are indicative of dehydration, selecting only one of these symptoms would not provide a comprehensive assessment. Hence, option D, which includes both dry mucous membranes and decreased urination, is the correct choice.

4. A client is being educated by a nurse about the use of carbidopa-levodopa. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It will cure Parkinson's disease
• B. Monitor for dyskinesia
• C. It can be taken with food
• D. It is an opioid medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Monitor for dyskinesia.' Carbidopa-levodopa can cause dyskinesia as a side effect, characterized by involuntary movements. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa helps manage symptoms of Parkinson's disease but does not cure it. Choice C is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa is not an opioid medication.

5. A client is at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to increase in their diet?

• A. Yogurt
• B. Apples
• C. Raisins
• D. Cheddar cheese

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, which can help prevent or address iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A) and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. While apples (Choice B) are a healthy fruit, they do not contain as much iron as raisins.

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