ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A client has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Prepare the client for a thoracentesis
- C. Elevate the client’s lower extremities
- D. Administer anticoagulant therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism can lead to impaired gas exchange, causing hypoxemia. Administering oxygen helps to maintain adequate oxygenation levels. Thoracentesis is not indicated for a pulmonary embolism, as it is a procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space, not a treatment for embolism. Elevating the client's lower extremities is not a priority in the management of a pulmonary embolism. Administering anticoagulant therapy is important in the treatment of pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation, but it is not the first intervention. Oxygen administration takes precedence to address the immediate oxygenation needs of the client.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of infection. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?
- A. Increased energy
- B. Fever
- C. Improved appetite
- D. Stable weight
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of infection. The correct answer is 'Fever.' Fever is a common sign of infection and indicates an immune response to an invading pathogen. Increased energy (Choice A) is not typically associated with infection, as the body often feels fatigued when fighting an infection. Improved appetite (Choice C) and stable weight (Choice D) are not specific signs of infection and may not necessarily indicate the presence of an infectious process. Therefore, the healthcare professional should focus on monitoring for fever as a key indicator of infection.
3. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following food choices should the healthcare provider recommend?
- A. A baked potato
- B. A chicken breast
- C. A banana
- D. A cup of orange juice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A chicken breast. Chicken breast is low in potassium, making it a safe option for clients with chronic kidney disease who need to limit their potassium intake. Foods like bananas and orange juice are high in potassium, which should be avoided or limited by individuals with chronic kidney disease to prevent further kidney damage.
4. When a nurse is interviewing a client who is requesting oral contraceptives, which finding in the client’s history is a contraindication to combined oral contraceptives?
- A. Thyroid disease
- B. Allergy to penicillin
- C. Impaired liver function
- D. Abnormal blood glucose levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired liver function. Impaired liver function is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives because they are metabolized in the liver. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Thyroid disease, allergy to penicillin, and abnormal blood glucose levels are not contraindications to combined oral contraceptives.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for clindamycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Signs of superinfection
- D. Blood glucose
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Signs of superinfection. Clindamycin can lead to antibiotic-associated colitis and other superinfections, making it crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of superinfection. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with clindamycin use. Serum potassium levels (choice B) and blood glucose (choice D) are also not directly affected by clindamycin, so they are not the priority for monitoring in this case.
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