a nurse is caring for a client who has developed a pulmonary embolism which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. A client has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism can lead to impaired gas exchange, causing hypoxemia. Administering oxygen helps to maintain adequate oxygenation levels. Thoracentesis is not indicated for a pulmonary embolism, as it is a procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space, not a treatment for embolism. Elevating the client's lower extremities is not a priority in the management of a pulmonary embolism. Administering anticoagulant therapy is important in the treatment of pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation, but it is not the first intervention. Oxygen administration takes precedence to address the immediate oxygenation needs of the client.

2. A nurse is performing a newborn assessment and notes a soft, swollen area on the newborn's scalp that does not cross the suture line. Which of the following should the nurse document?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, cephalohematoma. A cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between the periosteum and the skull that does not cross the suture line. It is caused by trauma during birth and typically resolves on its own. Choice B, caput succedaneum, is characterized by diffuse edema over a newborn's scalp that crosses suture lines. Choice C, subdural hematoma, is a more serious condition involving bleeding between the dura mater and the brain. Choice D, molding, refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal. Therefore, the nurse should document cephalohematoma in this scenario as it aligns with the description of a soft, swollen area on the newborn's scalp that does not cross the suture line.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of enoxaparin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to give enoxaparin in the abdomen. Enoxaparin is usually administered subcutaneously in the abdomen to avoid muscle irritation. Choice A is incorrect because enoxaparin should not be administered intramuscularly. Choice B is incorrect as monitoring APTT levels is not directly related to administering enoxaparin. Choice D is incorrect as enoxaparin should be administered slowly to prevent bruising or bleeding at the injection site.

4. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about the risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for osteoporosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Early menopause. A client who goes into early menopause, from natural or surgical causes, is at greater risk for developing osteoporosis due to the rapid drop in estrogen levels. Choice B, history of falls, is not a direct risk factor for osteoporosis but can lead to fractures in individuals with osteoporosis. Choice C, African American race, is actually associated with a lower risk of osteoporosis compared to Caucasian or Asian descent. Choice D, obesity, is generally considered a protective factor against osteoporosis due to the increased mechanical loading on bones.

5. A client is receiving ferrous sulfate. Which of the following should be monitored?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin levels. Ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia by increasing the body's iron stores. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial as it reflects the effectiveness of the treatment in improving the client's anemia. Serum potassium levels (Choice A) are typically not directly affected by ferrous sulfate. Liver function tests (Choice C) and blood glucose levels (Choice D) are not routinely monitored when a client is receiving ferrous sulfate unless there are specific indications or pre-existing conditions that warrant such monitoring.

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