Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. INR levels
• B. APTT levels
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Heparin therapy requires monitoring of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) to ensure therapeutic levels. APTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to assess the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy. Monitoring INR levels is more relevant for assessing warfarin therapy, not heparin. Blood glucose levels are monitored for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting glucose levels. Liver function tests are used to assess liver health and are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and has been receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. WBC 3,000/mm3
• B. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
• C. Platelets 250,000/mm3
• D. aPTT 30 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A WBC count of 3,000/mm3 indicates neutropenia, a dangerous complication of chemotherapy that increases the risk of infection and requires immediate attention. Neutropenia is a common side effect of chemotherapy and can lead to life-threatening infections. Reporting a low WBC count is crucial to ensure timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose immediate risks to the client undergoing chemotherapy.

3. A client is being taught how to use a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse.
• B. I will remove the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with my finger.
• C. I will not apply mineral oil on the diaphragm.
• D. I will place 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before inserting it.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client should place spermicide inside the diaphragm before insertion to enhance contraceptive effectiveness. It is recommended to leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, but not more than 24 hours. Choice A is incorrect because the diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours, not 4 hours. Choice B is incorrect as the diaphragm should be removed by hooking the rim below the dome, not above. Choice C is incorrect because mineral oil should not be used with the diaphragm as it can weaken the latex.

4. A nurse is completing a dietary assessment for a client who observes kosher dietary practices. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

• A. Leavened bread may be eaten during Passover
• B. Shellfish is commonly consumed in the diet
• C. Meat and dairy products are eaten separately
• D. Fasting from meat occurs during Hanukkah

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Meat and dairy products are eaten separately.' In kosher dietary practices, it is essential to keep meat and dairy products separate. Mixing meat and dairy is prohibited, and there are specific guidelines for the preparation and consumption of each. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is wrong because leavened bread is not eaten during Passover in kosher practices. Choice B is incorrect as shellfish is not consumed in a kosher diet. Choice D is also inaccurate as fasting from meat does not occur during Hanukkah in kosher dietary practices.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?

• A. 2100
• B. 900
• C. 1300
• D. 1800

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.

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