Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. INR levels
• B. APTT levels
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Heparin therapy requires monitoring of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) to ensure therapeutic levels. APTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to assess the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy. Monitoring INR levels is more relevant for assessing warfarin therapy, not heparin. Blood glucose levels are monitored for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting glucose levels. Liver function tests are used to assess liver health and are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

3. A charge nurse is planning care for a group of patients on a med-surg unit. What task should the nurse delegate to an assistive personnel?

• A. Measure hourly urinary output for the postoperative patient.
• B. Administer medications to stable patients.
• C. Reinforce patient education.
• D. Initiate a care plan for a new patient.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assistive personnel can be assigned to measure and document urinary output, a routine task within their scope of practice. Administering medications (choice B) requires a higher level of training and should be done by licensed nurses. Reinforcing patient education (choice C) involves providing information and ensuring patient understanding, which is typically done by licensed healthcare providers. Initiating a care plan (choice D) involves critical thinking and assessment skills, which are beyond the scope of practice for assistive personnel.

4. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?

• A. Increased blood pressure
• B. Pulse deficit
• C. Normal heart rate
• D. Elevated oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.

5. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a UTI. What prescription should the nurse verify with a provider?

• A. Ciprofloxacin
• B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
• C. Oxybutynin
• D. Nitrofurantoin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic used to treat overactive bladder, not a UTI. The nurse should verify this prescription because it may not be appropriate for a UTI. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of UTIs. Ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin are more suitable choices for the treatment of a UTI compared to oxybutynin.

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