ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. INR levels
- B. APTT levels
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Liver function tests
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Heparin therapy requires monitoring of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) to ensure therapeutic levels. APTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to assess the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy. Monitoring INR levels is more relevant for assessing warfarin therapy, not heparin. Blood glucose levels are monitored for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting glucose levels. Liver function tests are used to assess liver health and are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.
2. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?
- A. 4
- B. 7 (comatose)
- C. 9
- D. 10
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.
3. While caring for a client in active labor, a nurse notes late decelerations in the FHR on the external fetal monitor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Change the client's position
- B. Palpate the uterus to assess for tachysystole
- C. Increase the client's IV infusion rate
- D. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via nonrebreather mask
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial action for the nurse to take is to change the client's position. This intervention can alleviate pressure on the umbilical cord, potentially improving fetal oxygenation and addressing the underlying cause of late decelerations. Palpating the uterus to assess for tachysystole or increasing the IV infusion rate are not the first-line interventions for addressing late decelerations. Administering oxygen at a high flow rate via a nonrebreather mask may be necessary but is not the priority action in this situation.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled for electromyography (EMG). Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. “You will receive a fixed dose of radioisotope 2 hours before the procedure.”
- B. “Momentary flushing may occur at the beginning of the procedure.”
- C. “You should inform your provider if you are claustrophobic.”
- D. “You should expect insertion of small needle electrodes into the muscles.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. During an electromyography (EMG) procedure, small needle electrodes are inserted into the muscles to identify muscle weakness and evaluate local nerve responses. This information is crucial for the client to know beforehand. Choice A is incorrect because radioisotopes are not used in EMG procedures. Choice B is incorrect because flushing is not a common occurrence during EMG. Choice C is incorrect because claustrophobia is more relevant to MRI or CT scans, not EMG procedures.
5. What is the name of a legal document that instructs health care providers and family members about what life-sustaining treatment an individual wants if they are unable to make decisions?
- A. Do Not Resuscitate
- B. Informed consent
- C. Living will
- D. Durable power of attorney for health care
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Living will.' A living will is a legal document that outlines an individual's preferences for life-sustaining medical treatment if they become unable to make decisions. Choice A, 'Do Not Resuscitate,' specifically refers to a directive that instructs healthcare providers not to perform CPR. Choice B, 'Informed consent,' pertains to a patient's right to be informed about and consent to medical treatment. Choice D, 'Durable power of attorney for health care,' involves appointing someone to make healthcare decisions on behalf of an individual when they are unable to do so.
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