Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. INR levels
• B. APTT levels
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Heparin therapy requires monitoring of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) to ensure therapeutic levels. APTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to assess the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy. Monitoring INR levels is more relevant for assessing warfarin therapy, not heparin. Blood glucose levels are monitored for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting glucose levels. Liver function tests are used to assess liver health and are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. What is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

• A. Dehydration
• B. Urinary incontinence
• C. Poor nutrition
• D. Poor tissue perfusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries due to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants. Dehydration (choice A) can contribute to skin dryness but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries. Poor nutrition (choice C) can affect wound healing but is not specifically linked to pressure injuries. Poor tissue perfusion (choice D) can increase the risk of tissue damage but is not as directly associated with pressure injuries as urinary incontinence.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a femur fracture and is in skeletal traction. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Clear fluid drainage from the pin sites
• B. Client reporting intermittent muscle spasms
• C. Client reporting severe pain despite receiving analgesics
• D. The traction weights are hanging freely

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Severe pain that is not relieved by analgesics may indicate neurovascular compromise or other complications and requires immediate attention by the provider. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because clear fluid drainage from the pin sites is expected in skeletal traction, intermittent muscle spasms are common in this situation, and traction weights hanging freely indicate proper traction alignment.

4. When assessing a client with a small bowel obstruction, what finding should a nurse expect?

• A. Significant abdominal distention
• B. Large bowel movements
• C. High-pitched bowel sounds
• D. Copious vomiting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High-pitched bowel sounds are often heard early in a small bowel obstruction due to increased peristalsis as the bowel tries to overcome the blockage. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Abdominal distention is more commonly associated with large bowel obstructions, while large bowel movements and copious vomiting are not typical findings in small bowel obstructions.

5. A client is being educated by a nurse on how to use a PCA pump postoperatively. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?

• A. I should wait until the pain is severe before using the PCA pump.
• B. My family can press the button for me while I’m asleep.
• C. I will press the button when I start to feel pain.
• D. I will only press the button once per hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement indicates understanding because the client recognizes that they should use the PCA pump when they start to feel pain. Waiting for the pain to become severe is not recommended as it may lead to inadequate pain control. Option B is incorrect because only the client should control the PCA pump to ensure safety and appropriate dosing. Option D is also incorrect as there is no set limit on how often the button can be pressed, as it should be used as needed when pain is felt.

Similar Questions