Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing psychosocial stages of development for a school-age child. What would be an expected behavioral finding for this child?

• A. Personalize values and beliefs and base reasoning on ethical fairness principles.
• B. Develop a sense of personal identity that is influenced by family expectations.
• C. Develop a sense of industry through advances in learning.
• D. Take on new experiences and when unable to accomplish tasks, may feel guilty.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. School-age children (6-12 years) are in Erikson's stage of industry vs. inferiority. During this stage, they strive to develop a sense of industry through learning and socialization. They seek to excel in various areas, such as schoolwork or activities, and look for approval from peers and adults. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because personalizing values and beliefs, developing personal identity influenced by family expectations, and feeling guilty for inability to accomplish tasks are not typical behavioral findings for a school-age child in the context of psychosocial development.

2. A nurse is planning care for a newly admitted adolescent with bacterial meningitis. What intervention should the nurse include?

• A. Initiate droplet precautions
• B. Assist the client to a supine position
• C. Perform a Glasgow Coma Scale every 24 hours
• D. Recommend prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a newly admitted adolescent with bacterial meningitis is to initiate droplet precautions. Bacterial meningitis is highly contagious, and droplet precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of infection. Assisting the client to a supine position (Choice B) is not directly related to managing bacterial meningitis. Performing a Glasgow Coma Scale every 24 hours (Choice C) may be important to assess the client's neurological status but is not the priority intervention in preventing the spread of infection. Recommending prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family (Choice D) is not a standard practice in the care of a patient with bacterial meningitis.

3. A client is receiving vancomycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Blood glucose levels
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. INR levels
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, meaning it can cause kidney damage. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is essential to assess kidney function and detect any signs of nephrotoxicity. Blood glucose levels (choice A) are not directly affected by vancomycin. INR levels (choice C) are typically monitored for clients on anticoagulants, not vancomycin. Liver function tests (choice D) are not primarily affected by vancomycin use; kidney function is of greater concern.

4. A client who has osteoporosis is being discharged with a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water to prevent esophageal irritation. Additionally, the client should remain upright for 30 minutes after taking it to prevent potential adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken at bedtime, but rather in the morning on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food. Choice D is incorrect because the client should remain upright, not lie down, for 30 minutes after taking the medication.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?

• A. Magnesium sulfate
• B. Oxytocin
• C. Misoprostol
• D. Nifedipine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.

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