Nursing Elites

1. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being cared for by a nurse. Which food selection indicates the client understands dietary teaching?

• A. A sandwich and milkshake
• B. Rice with black beans
• C. Cottage cheese and tuna lettuce
• D. Three-egg omelet with low-sodium ham

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients with hepatic encephalopathy, foods high in protein like cottage cheese and tuna should be avoided. Plant-based protein sources like beans are recommended due to their lower ammonia production during digestion. Therefore, the correct choice is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they include high-protein or high-sodium foods that can worsen the condition of hepatic encephalopathy.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone levels, which results in potassium retention. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and tinnitus (Choice D) are also not typically associated with enalapril use.

3. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of warfarin. Which of the following should the nurse do?

• A. Check INR levels
• B. Administer it with food
• C. Monitor blood glucose
• D. Assess liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check INR levels. Before administering warfarin, it is crucial to check the INR levels to ensure they are within the therapeutic range. This helps to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice B, administering it with food, is incorrect as warfarin should typically be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C, monitoring blood glucose, is unrelated to the administration of warfarin. Choice D, assessing liver function, is important but not the immediate action required before administering warfarin.

5. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Hypertension
• C. Pruritus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.

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