ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A nurse is completing a dietary assessment for a client who observes kosher dietary practices. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?
- A. Leavened bread may be eaten during Passover
- B. Shellfish is commonly consumed in the diet
- C. Meat and dairy products are eaten separately
- D. Fasting from meat occurs during Hanukkah
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Meat and dairy products are eaten separately.' In kosher dietary practices, it is essential to keep meat and dairy products separate. Mixing meat and dairy is prohibited, and there are specific guidelines for the preparation and consumption of each. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is wrong because leavened bread is not eaten during Passover in kosher practices. Choice B is incorrect as shellfish is not consumed in a kosher diet. Choice D is also inaccurate as fasting from meat does not occur during Hanukkah in kosher dietary practices.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with a history of substance abuse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Monitor for withdrawal symptoms
- B. Encourage social activities
- C. Schedule regular follow-ups
- D. Provide educational materials
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for withdrawal symptoms. This is a priority because individuals with a history of substance abuse are at risk of experiencing withdrawal symptoms when the substance is no longer used. Monitoring for withdrawal symptoms is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to manage any potential complications related to substance withdrawal. Encouraging social activities, scheduling regular follow-ups, and providing educational materials are also important aspects of care, but they are not as critical as monitoring for withdrawal symptoms in this immediate scenario.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?
- A. Glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/min
- B. BUN 16 mg/dL
- C. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
- D. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 14 mL/min indicates severely impaired kidney function, often necessitating hemodialysis to support renal function and manage fluid and electrolyte balance. A BUN level of 16 mg/dL falls within the normal range (7-20 mg/dL) and does not specifically indicate the need for hemodialysis. Serum magnesium at 1.8 mg/dL and serum phosphorus at 4.0 mg/dL are also within normal ranges and do not typically prompt the immediate need for hemodialysis in chronic kidney disease.
4. A client tells the nurse that she suspects she is pregnant because she is able to feel the baby move. The nurse knows that this is a:
- A. Presumptive sign of pregnancy
- B. Probable sign of pregnancy
- C. Positive sign of pregnancy
- D. Possible sign of pregnancy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Presumptive sign of pregnancy. Quickening, or the sensation of fetal movement, is considered a presumptive sign of pregnancy. It is not definitive because other conditions, such as gas or intestinal movement, can mimic the feeling of fetal movement. Choice B, Probable sign of pregnancy, refers to signs that make the nurse reasonably certain that a woman is pregnant, such as a positive pregnancy test. Choice C, Positive sign of pregnancy, includes signs like hearing fetal heart tones or visualizing the fetus on ultrasound, which definitively confirm pregnancy. Choice D, Possible sign of pregnancy, is a vague term and does not specifically relate to any pregnancy sign.
5. During triage following a mass casualty event, which client should be prioritized?
- A. A client with massive head trauma
- B. A client with full-thickness burns to the face and trunk
- C. A client showing signs of hypovolemic shock
- D. A client with an open fracture of the lower extremity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During triage after a mass casualty event, the client showing signs of hypovolemic shock should be prioritized. Hypovolemic shock is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention to restore circulation and prevent death. While clients with head trauma, burns, and fractures also need urgent care, hypovolemic shock poses an immediate threat to life and must be addressed first to stabilize the client's condition.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access