Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed digoxin and has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer digoxin without any modifications
• B. Administer the medication at a lower dose
• C. Monitor serum potassium levels
• D. Discontinue the medication if potassium levels rise

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. In this case, the nurse should administer the digoxin without any modifications. Lowering the dose (Choice B) may not be necessary if the potassium level is not critically low. Monitoring serum potassium levels (Choice C) is important but should not delay the administration of digoxin. Discontinuing the medication (Choice D) is not the initial action to take unless the potassium levels become severely low and life-threatening.

2. A healthcare provider is educating a client about the use of finasteride. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It is used to treat hypertension
• B. It can cause hair loss
• C. It may take several months to see results
• D. It is safe for use during pregnancy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct answer: The healthcare provider should inform the client that finasteride may take several months to show therapeutic effects for conditions like hair loss or benign prostatic hyperplasia. Choice A is incorrect as finasteride is not used to treat hypertension. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride is actually used to treat hair loss, not cause it. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of harm to a male fetus.

3. When teaching a client about the use of risperidone, which of the following should be included?

• A. It is an SSRI
• B. Monitor for metabolic syndrome
• C. It has no side effects
• D. It can be taken with alcohol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for metabolic syndrome.' Risperidone is not an SSRI but an atypical antipsychotic. Choice A is incorrect. Choice C is also incorrect as risperidone, like any medication, can have side effects. Choice D is wrong because alcohol consumption should generally be avoided while taking risperidone. Educating clients about monitoring for metabolic syndrome, weight gain, and other potential side effects is crucial in managing their health effectively while on this medication.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has end-stage osteoporosis and is reporting severe pain. The client’s respiratory rate is 14 per minute. Which of the following medications should the nurse prioritize administering?

• A. Promethazine
• B. Hydromorphone
• C. Ketorolac
• D. Amitriptyline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hydromorphone, an opioid, is the most appropriate option for managing severe pain in this context. Opioids provide fast-acting relief for acute pain associated with advanced osteoporosis. Promethazine (Choice A) is an antihistamine and not indicated for pain relief. Ketorolac (Choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may increase the risk of bleeding and is not recommended for severe pain management. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant that is not the first-line treatment for severe acute pain.

5. A client is being treated with thiazide diuretics. What should the nurse monitor regularly?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thiazide diuretics are known to cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion in the urine. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly linked with thiazide diuretics due to increased sodium excretion. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a usual concern when a client is receiving thiazide diuretics.

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