Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed digoxin and has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer digoxin without any modifications
• B. Administer the medication at a lower dose
• C. Monitor serum potassium levels
• D. Discontinue the medication if potassium levels rise

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. In this case, the nurse should administer the digoxin without any modifications. Lowering the dose (Choice B) may not be necessary if the potassium level is not critically low. Monitoring serum potassium levels (Choice C) is important but should not delay the administration of digoxin. Discontinuing the medication (Choice D) is not the initial action to take unless the potassium levels become severely low and life-threatening.

2. A client is being educated by a nurse about the use of bupropion. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It can cause weight gain
• B. It may increase seizure risk
• C. It is an SSRI
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bupropion may lower the seizure threshold, increasing the risk of seizures, especially in clients with a history of seizures. Choice A is incorrect because bupropion is associated with weight loss rather than weight gain. Choice C is incorrect as bupropion is not an SSRI; it is an aminoketone antidepressant. Choice D is incorrect as bupropion, like all medications, can have side effects, and it is essential for clients to be aware of them.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will stop taking the medication when I feel better.
• B. I will avoid caffeine while taking this medication.
• C. I will wear sunscreen when going outside.
• D. I will drink plenty of fluids while on this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients should be instructed to complete the entire course of antibiotics, even if they start feeling better, to prevent antibiotic resistance and recurrence of infection.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.

• A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
• B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
• C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medication metformin with a client who has diabetes. Which of the following side effects should the nurse discuss?

• A. Gastrointestinal upset
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Weight loss
• D. Frequent urination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gastrointestinal upset. Metformin can cause gastrointestinal upset, especially when first starting therapy. It is important to take it with food to reduce these effects. Increased appetite (choice B) and weight loss (choice C) are not common side effects of metformin but may occur due to improved blood sugar control. Frequent urination (choice D) is a symptom of uncontrolled diabetes and not a side effect of metformin.

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