Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client for potential drug interactions. Which of the following factors should the nurse consider?

• A. Client's diet
• B. Client's age
• C. Client's genetic background
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct! All of these factors should be considered when assessing a client for potential drug interactions. The client's diet can interact with certain medications, the client's age can affect metabolism and drug sensitivity, and genetic background can impact how the body processes medications. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to take into account all these factors to ensure safe and effective drug therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these factors alone can contribute to potential drug interactions, making it crucial to consider all of them together.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. A Pap test is recommended every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65.
• B. Pap tests are recommended following removal of the ovaries.
• C. Avoid having sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test.
• D. Viral infections cannot be detected by a Pap test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients should avoid sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test to ensure accurate results, as it can affect the sample. This is important for obtaining reliable results. Choice A is incorrect because a yearly Pap test is not the standard recommendation for all age groups; instead, it is typically every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65. Choice B is incorrect because Pap tests are not necessarily discontinued following removal of the ovaries; they may still be needed based on the individual's health history and provider recommendations. Choice D is incorrect because while Pap tests are primarily used to detect abnormal cervical cells and cervical cancer, they do not detect viral infections.

3. A nurse is completing an assessment of a newborn who is 2 hours old. Which of the following findings is indicative of cold stress?

• A. Respiratory rate of 60 per minute
• B. Jitteriness of the hands
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Bounding peripheral pulses

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Jitteriness of the hands is a classic sign of cold stress in newborns, indicating that the infant is having difficulty maintaining a stable body temperature. Cold stress can lead to hypoglycemia and increased oxygen consumption. The other options (A, C, and D) are not directly associated with cold stress in newborns. A respiratory rate of 60 per minute may be within the normal range for a newborn. Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) and bounding peripheral pulses are not specific signs of cold stress in newborns.

4. A client just received the first dose of lisinopril. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Place the client on cardiac monitoring
• B. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level
• C. Provide standby assistance when getting out of bed
• D. Encourage foods high in potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide standby assistance when getting out of bed. Lisinopril can cause first-dose hypotension, leading to dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. Standby assistance helps ensure the client's safety when mobilizing. Placing the client on cardiac monitoring (choice A) is not necessary unless there are specific indications for cardiac monitoring. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) is not directly related to the side effects of lisinopril. Encouraging foods high in potassium (choice D) is not the most immediate or appropriate intervention following the administration of lisinopril.

5. A nurse is preparing to teach a client with chronic renal failure. Which dietary instruction is most appropriate?

• A. Increase calcium intake
• B. Increase potassium intake
• C. Increase protein intake
• D. Restrict protein intake

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to restrict protein intake for a client with chronic renal failure. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products. Excessive protein intake can lead to the accumulation of waste products, increasing the workload on the kidneys. Therefore, restricting protein intake is essential to prevent further kidney damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Increasing calcium intake is not specifically indicated for chronic renal failure. Increasing potassium intake can be dangerous in renal failure as impaired kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium. Increasing protein intake is contraindicated in chronic renal failure as it can worsen kidney function and increase the accumulation of waste products.

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