Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client for potential drug interactions. Which of the following factors should the nurse consider?

• A. Client's diet
• B. Client's age
• C. Client's genetic background
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct! All of these factors should be considered when assessing a client for potential drug interactions. The client's diet can interact with certain medications, the client's age can affect metabolism and drug sensitivity, and genetic background can impact how the body processes medications. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to take into account all these factors to ensure safe and effective drug therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these factors alone can contribute to potential drug interactions, making it crucial to consider all of them together.

2. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a patient who has extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest. While planning the patient’s care, the nurse should identify which of the following risks as the priority for assessment and intervention?

• A. Infection
• B. Airway obstruction
• C. Fluid imbalance
• D. Pain management

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient has extensive burns involving the head, neck, and chest, the priority concern is airway obstruction. The proximity of the burns to the airway can lead to swelling and compromise the patient's ability to breathe. In this situation, ensuring a clear airway and adequate oxygenation takes precedence over other risks such as infection, fluid imbalance, or pain management. While these are also important considerations in burn care, the immediate threat to the patient's life from airway compromise makes it the priority for assessment and intervention.

3. A home health nurse is providing teaching to a patient who has a new diagnosis of a gastric ulcer and a new prescription for sucralfate oral suspension. What statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take this medicine with meals.
• B. I will take this medicine right before bed.
• C. I will take this medicine 1 hour before meals and at bedtime.
• D. I will take this medicine only when I have symptoms.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals, and at bedtime to coat the ulcer and protect it from stomach acid. Choice A is incorrect because taking it with meals may reduce its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect as it should not be taken right before bed. Choice D is incorrect as sucralfate should be taken regularly as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Bleeding time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.

5. A nurse is planning discharge teaching for cord care for the parent of a newborn. Which instructions would you include in the teaching?

• A. Contact provider if the cord turns black
• B. Clean the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily
• C. Keep the cord dry until it falls off
• D. The cord stump will fall off in ten days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching for cord care is to keep the cord dry until it falls off naturally. This helps prevent infection, as the cord typically falls off in 10-14 days, not within five days. Instructing the parent to contact the provider if the cord turns black (Choice A) is important to monitor for signs of infection. Cleaning the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily (Choice B) is not recommended as it can delay healing. Stating that the cord stump will fall off in ten days (Choice D) provides a more accurate timeframe compared to the initial estimation of five days.

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