Nursing Elites

1. A client is being taught how to use a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse.
• B. I will remove the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with my finger.
• C. I will not apply mineral oil on the diaphragm.
• D. I will place 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before inserting it.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client should place spermicide inside the diaphragm before insertion to enhance contraceptive effectiveness. It is recommended to leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, but not more than 24 hours. Choice A is incorrect because the diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours, not 4 hours. Choice B is incorrect as the diaphragm should be removed by hooking the rim below the dome, not above. Choice C is incorrect because mineral oil should not be used with the diaphragm as it can weaken the latex.

2. A postpartum client's fundus is firm, 3 cm above the umbilicus, and displaced to the right. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?

• A. Massage the fundus
• B. Administer oxytocin
• C. Assist the client to void then reassess the fundus
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a postpartum client with a firm, displaced fundus is to assist the client to void then reassess the fundus. Displacement of the uterus to the right is often a sign of bladder distention, which can prevent the uterus from contracting properly and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. By helping the client to void, the nurse can alleviate the bladder distention, allowing the uterus to contract effectively. Massaging the fundus (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of bladder distention. Administering oxytocin (Choice B) is not indicated without assessing and addressing the cause of the displacement. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is premature before implementing initial nursing interventions to address the potential cause of the displaced fundus.

3. A nurse is providing discharge instructions about breast engorgement to a client who has decided not to breastfeed. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further instruction?

• A. I can wear a supportive bra
• B. I will apply cold compresses to my breasts
• C. I will manually express breast milk
• D. I can take a mild analgesic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Manually expressing breast milk will stimulate more milk production, which contradicts the goal of reducing milk supply in clients who choose not to breastfeed. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that can help relieve breast engorgement without promoting further milk production.

4. When reinforcing teaching about self-care with a patient who has pelvic inflammatory disease and does not speak English, what action by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. Provide written instructions in English.
• B. Use family members as translators.
• C. Seek assistance from a facility-approved interpreter.
• D. Use online translation tools.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When communicating with a patient who does not speak English, it is crucial to seek assistance from a facility-approved interpreter. Using family members as translators can lead to inaccuracies, breaches in confidentiality, and discomfort for the patient. Online translation tools may not provide accurate or context-specific translations, which can result in misunderstandings. Providing written instructions in English would not be effective if the patient does not understand the language.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?

• A. 19 gtt/min
• B. 20 gtt/min
• C. 21 gtt/min
• D. 22 gtt/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calculation: 1000 mL / 480 minutes × 10 gtt/mL = 20.83, rounded to 21 gtt/min. This ensures proper IV fluid administration over the prescribed time. Choice C is the correct answer as it reflects the accurate calculation based on the given parameters. Choice A is incorrect because it does not accurately calculate the infusion rate. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the precise calculation required. Choice D is incorrect as it deviates from the correct calculation.

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