ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A client is being taught how to use a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse.
- B. I will remove the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with my finger.
- C. I will not apply mineral oil on the diaphragm.
- D. I will place 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before inserting it.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client should place spermicide inside the diaphragm before insertion to enhance contraceptive effectiveness. It is recommended to leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, but not more than 24 hours. Choice A is incorrect because the diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours, not 4 hours. Choice B is incorrect as the diaphragm should be removed by hooking the rim below the dome, not above. Choice C is incorrect because mineral oil should not be used with the diaphragm as it can weaken the latex.
2. A client is newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism and prescribed levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Take the medication in the evening.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Take the medication only when experiencing symptoms.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction is to take levothyroxine on an empty stomach. This is necessary for proper absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Taking it with food can interfere with absorption. Timing is also crucial; it is usually recommended to take levothyroxine in the morning to prevent potential interactions with food and other medications throughout the day. Taking the medication in the evening may lead to sleep disturbances. Lastly, waiting to take the medication only when symptoms occur is not appropriate as levothyroxine is typically taken regularly to maintain thyroid hormone levels within the body.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of insulin. Which of the following should the nurse do first?
- A. Check the expiration date
- B. Verify the client's blood glucose level
- C. Obtain the client's weight
- D. Assess for signs of hypoglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood glucose level first before administering insulin. This step is crucial to determine the appropriate dose of insulin based on the client's current blood glucose level. Checking the expiration date (Choice A) is important but not the first step in this scenario. Obtaining the client's weight (Choice C) is not directly related to the immediate administration of insulin. Assessing for signs of hypoglycemia (Choice D) should be done after administering insulin to monitor for potential side effects or adverse reactions.
4. A nurse enters a patient's room and finds the client pulseless. The living will requests no resuscitation be performed, but the provider has not written the prescription. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the family.
- B. Begin CPR.
- C. Await further instructions from the provider.
- D. Document the event.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to begin CPR. Even though the living will requests no resuscitation, without a written do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order from the provider, the nurse is ethically and legally bound to initiate CPR to provide life-saving measures until further confirmation is obtained. Notifying the family (Choice A) may cause a delay in providing immediate care. Waiting for further instructions (Choice C) can be time-consuming and compromise patient outcomes. Documenting the event (Choice D) is important but should follow after initiating CPR to ensure patient safety and adherence to protocols.
5. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Client who has pleurisy and reports pain of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
- B. Client with 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from a Jackson Pratt drain within the first 24 hours after surgery
- C. Client who is 4 hours postoperative and has a heart rate of 98 bpm
- D. Client who has a prescription for chemotherapy and an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, which puts the client at high risk of infection and requires immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases the susceptibility to infections due to a significant decrease in neutrophils, which are essential for fighting off bacteria and other pathogens. Reporting this critical lab value promptly to the provider is essential to ensure appropriate interventions are initiated to prevent life-threatening infections. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent reporting to the provider.
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