a nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change for a client with a surgical wound which action should the nurse take to prevent contaminati
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change for a client with a surgical wound. Which action should the nurse take to prevent contamination during the dressing change?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take to prevent contamination during a sterile dressing change is to restart the procedure if the sterile solution splashes onto the sterile field. Any contamination of the sterile field compromises the aseptic technique and increases the risk of infection for the client. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain the sterility of the field throughout the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because proceeding with the dressing change, continuing without concern for minor splashes, or delegating the task to another nurse would all compromise the sterility of the procedure and increase the risk of infection for the client.

2. A nurse is reviewing the guidelines for reporting nationally notifiable infectious diseases. What disease should the nurse report to the CDC?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Lyme disease. Lyme disease must be reported to the CDC as it is a nationally notifiable infectious disease. It is spread by ticks and can lead to significant health issues if not monitored. Measles, Hepatitis A, and Zika are also important infectious diseases, but in this case, Lyme disease is the appropriate choice based on the information provided.

3. A nurse manager is teaching a group of employees about QSEN. What statement by an employee should the nurse manager identify as quality improvement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. QSEN focuses on quality improvement in healthcare. Tracking how soon patients are discharged after different types of surgeries helps in evaluating the quality of care provided and identifying areas for improvement. Choices A and B focus on monitoring outcomes but do not directly relate to quality improvement initiatives. Choice D is more about a routine assessment before discharge and does not involve a quality improvement process.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

5. A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.

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