ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of potassium chloride. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer rapidly
- B. Dilute the medication before administration
- C. Give it as a bolus
- D. Administer it intramuscularly
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action when administering potassium chloride is to dilute the medication before administration. Potassium chloride is a highly concentrated solution that can cause irritation and potential complications if not properly diluted. Administering it rapidly (choice A) can lead to adverse effects. Giving it as a bolus (choice C) or administering it intramuscularly (choice D) are inappropriate routes for potassium chloride administration and can result in harm to the patient.
2. A nurse is performing a focused assessment on a client who has a history of COPD and is experiencing dyspnea. Which of the findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Flaring of the nostrils
- B. Normal respiratory rate
- C. Clear lung sounds
- D. Decreased work of breathing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flaring of the nostrils indicates increased respiratory effort, common in clients with dyspnea due to COPD. In COPD, the airways are narrowed, causing difficulty in breathing, leading to increased work of breathing. Normal respiratory rate and clear lung sounds are less likely findings in a client with COPD experiencing dyspnea. Decreased work of breathing is not expected in this situation as COPD typically results in increased work of breathing.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare professional monitor for?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In heart failure, the accumulation of fluid can lead to peripheral edema, which is swelling in the extremities. This is a common sign that healthcare professionals should monitor for. While tachycardia (increased heart rate), bradycardia (decreased heart rate), and hypotension (low blood pressure) can also occur in heart failure, they are not the primary signs typically associated with this condition. Therefore, peripheral edema is the most relevant sign to monitor in this case.
4. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum?
- A. Encourage high-calorie meals
- B. Administer intravenous fluids
- C. Provide frequent small meals
- D. Limit fluid intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer intravenous fluids. Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe, persistent nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. The priority intervention is to administer intravenous fluids to maintain hydration. Encouraging high-calorie meals (Choice A) may exacerbate symptoms due to increased gastric stimulation. Providing frequent small meals (Choice C) may not be effective in severe cases where continuous vomiting occurs. Limiting fluid intake (Choice D) is contraindicated in hyperemesis gravidarum as dehydration is a significant concern.
5. A client who is 2 hours postpartum reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Perform fundal massage
- B. Administer oxytocin IV
- C. Check vital signs
- D. Encourage the client to void
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform fundal massage. Fundal massage promotes uterine contractions, which is the initial action to reduce postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony. Checking vital signs (choice C) is important but not the priority when active bleeding is present. Administering oxytocin IV (choice B) may be needed but is not the priority action. Encouraging the client to void (choice D) does not address the underlying issue of postpartum hemorrhage and should not be the priority.
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