a client diagnosed with pneumonia is receiving oxygen therapy at 4 lmin via nasal cannula which of the following interventions is most important
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A client diagnosed with pneumonia is receiving oxygen therapy at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following interventions is most important?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring oxygen saturation levels is the most important intervention in this scenario. It ensures that the client is receiving adequate oxygenation, which is crucial for a client with pneumonia. By monitoring saturation levels, the nurse can promptly identify any oxygenation issues and adjust the oxygen delivery if necessary. Encouraging fluid intake, changing oxygen tubing daily, and assisting with frequent position changes are also important aspects of care for a client with pneumonia, but they are not as critical as monitoring oxygen saturation levels in ensuring immediate respiratory support.

2. A client with a cystocele is encouraged to exercise to strengthen pelvic floor muscles and prevent pelvic organ prolapse. What exercise will the client need to perform?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The client with a cystocele should perform Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, reducing the risk of pelvic organ prolapse and stress urinary incontinence. Kegel exercises specifically target the muscles that support the pelvic organs. Isometric exercises focus on static muscle contractions and may not be as effective as Kegel exercises for strengthening the pelvic floor. Circumduction exercises involve circular movements at joints and are not specific to pelvic floor muscle strengthening. Uterine extension exercises do not directly target the pelvic floor muscles and are not indicated for cystocele management.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.

4. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of levetiracetam. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Levetiracetam can cause mood changes and behavioral side effects, so clients should be monitored for these effects. Choice A is incorrect because levetiracetam is not typically associated with weight loss. Choice C is incorrect as levetiracetam is a prescription medication, not available over the counter. Choice D is incorrect as all medications, including levetiracetam, have potential side effects.

5. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse look for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Swelling in the limb. Swelling, particularly in one limb, is a common sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and should be assessed. This swelling is often accompanied by pain, redness, and warmth in the affected area. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreased heart rate, increased appetite, and improved mobility are not typically associated with DVT. The main focus in assessing for DVT is recognizing the signs and symptoms related to venous thrombosis.

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