Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 8,000 units subcutaneously every eight hrs. The amount available is heparin injection 10,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

• A. 0.7 mL
• B. 0.8 mL
• C. 1.0 mL
• D. 1.2 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Calculation: 8000 units / 10,000 units per mL = 0.8 mL. To correctly administer the prescribed dose of 8000 units, the healthcare professional should draw up 0.8 mL from the 10,000 units/mL vial. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculation based on the available concentration of heparin.

2. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed hydroxychloroquine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Eye exams
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Complete blood count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eye exams. Hydroxychloroquine can cause retinal damage, making it essential for the nurse to monitor the client's eyes regularly for any changes. Monitoring liver function tests (choice A), blood glucose levels (choice C), or complete blood count (choice D) are not directly associated with the potential side effects of hydroxychloroquine.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased serum amylase
• B. Decreased serum lipase
• C. Elevated blood glucose
• D. Elevated calcium levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, the nurse should expect elevated blood glucose levels. This is due to impaired insulin production by the inflamed pancreas. While serum amylase and lipase levels are typically elevated in acute pancreatitis, blood glucose levels are also affected due to the pancreatic dysfunction. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect. Elevated calcium levels are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis, making choice D incorrect.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB). The client has a productive cough and is started on airborne precautions. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Wear an N95 respirator mask when caring for the client.
• B. Place the client in a semi-private room.
• C. Have the client wear a surgical mask during meals.
• D. Use a negative pressure air filtration system.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to wear an N95 respirator mask when caring for the client with TB. This is crucial to prevent the nurse from inhaling the airborne particles that spread the infection. Choice B is incorrect because placing the client in a semi-private room does not address the protection of the nurse. Choice C is incorrect as having the client wear a surgical mask during meals is not sufficient to protect the nurse during all interactions. Choice D is incorrect as using a negative pressure air filtration system is more applicable to airborne infection isolation rooms in healthcare settings and not a standard intervention for nurses caring for a single client with TB.

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