a nurse is preparing to administer heparin 8000 units subcutaneously every eight hrs the amount available is heparin injection 10000 unitsml how many
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 8,000 units subcutaneously every eight hrs. The amount available is heparin injection 10,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Calculation: 8000 units / 10,000 units per mL = 0.8 mL. To correctly administer the prescribed dose of 8000 units, the healthcare professional should draw up 0.8 mL from the 10,000 units/mL vial. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculation based on the available concentration of heparin.

2. A nurse is in an acute care facility, caring for a client who is postop following abdominal surgery. Which behavior should the nurse identify as increasing the client's risk for constipation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Suppression of the urge to defecate.' Suppressing the urge to defecate can lead to constipation, especially in postoperative clients. It is essential to encourage clients to respond to the urge to defecate to prevent constipation. Increased fiber intake (Choice A) is beneficial for preventing constipation. Ambulation (Choice C) helps promote bowel motility and can reduce the risk of constipation. Daily laxative use (Choice D) may contribute to laxative dependence but is not the behavior most directly associated with increasing the risk of constipation in this scenario.

3. A nurse is teaching a client about the dietary management of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Drink peppermint tea.' Peppermint tea can help relax the smooth muscles of the gastrointestinal tract, reducing symptoms of IBS, such as bloating and abdominal discomfort. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing fiber intake is not recommended for IBS management as fiber can help regulate bowel movements. Increasing foods high in fat can exacerbate symptoms of IBS, as high-fat foods can be harder to digest. Avoiding foods with gluten is more relevant for individuals with gluten sensitivity or celiac disease, not specifically for IBS management.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit their intake of phosphorus because high phosphorus levels can lead to bone disease and cardiovascular problems. Increasing foods high in potassium (choice B) is not recommended as it can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease. Decreasing intake of foods high in iron (choice C) is not specifically indicated for chronic kidney disease. Increasing calcium supplements (choice D) may not be necessary and can potentially lead to hypercalcemia in individuals with kidney disease.

5. A client who was incarcerated for theft is addressing the group in a County Jail health clinic. Which of the following is an example of reaction formation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because reaction formation occurs when a person expresses the opposite of what they feel. In this case, the client is advocating for honesty, despite their own history of theft. Choice A discusses stealing to distract from a bad marriage, which does not involve expressing the opposite of one's feelings. Choice B focuses on denial, not reaction formation. Choice C involves delaying emotional discussion, which is not related to expressing the opposite of one's true feelings.

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