Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 8,000 units subcutaneously every eight hrs. The amount available is heparin injection 10,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

• A. 0.7 mL
• B. 0.8 mL
• C. 1.0 mL
• D. 1.2 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Calculation: 8000 units / 10,000 units per mL = 0.8 mL. To correctly administer the prescribed dose of 8000 units, the healthcare professional should draw up 0.8 mL from the 10,000 units/mL vial. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculation based on the available concentration of heparin.

2. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a newborn who has hyperbilirubinemia and a prescription for phototherapy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Check the newborn's temperature every 4 hours
• B. Apply moisturizing lotion to the newborn's skin every 4 hours
• C. Give the newborn 1 oz of glucose water every 4 hours
• D. Reposition the newborn every 2 to 3 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repositioning the newborn every 2 to 3 hours during phototherapy is important to expose all areas of the skin to light and facilitate the breakdown of bilirubin. Checking the newborn's temperature is important, but it should be done more frequently, such as every 4 hours, to monitor for any signs of overheating or hypothermia. Applying moisturizing lotion is not indicated during phototherapy as it may interfere with the treatment. Giving glucose water is not necessary for the management of hyperbilirubinemia.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Shallow breathing
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Warm, dry skin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Shallow breathing is a key indicator of respiratory distress, reflecting an inadequate exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Bradycardia (Choice B) refers to a slow heart rate and is not typically a direct sign of respiratory distress. Increased appetite (Choice C) and warm, dry skin (Choice D) are unrelated to respiratory distress. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

4. A nurse observes an assistive personnel (AP) providing care to a child who is in skeletal traction. Which of the following actions requires intervention?

• A. Providing a high-protein snack
• B. Assisting the child to reposition
• C. Placing weights on the child’s bed
• D. Massaging pressure points

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Placing weights on the child's bed can alter the traction, which must remain constant to be effective. This action requires immediate intervention to prevent harm. Providing a high-protein snack (Choice A) is appropriate for the child's nutritional needs. Assisting the child to reposition (Choice B) helps prevent complications such as pressure ulcers. Massaging pressure points (Choice D) can help promote circulation and prevent skin breakdown. However, altering the traction by placing weights on the bed can be detrimental to the child's condition and must be corrected promptly.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?

• A. Sunken anterior fontanel
• B. Tenting skin turgor
• C. Flat anterior fontanel
• D. Hyperpnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.

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