a nurse is caring for a client who is to undergo a liver biopsy which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client following t

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A client is to undergo a liver biopsy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client following the procedure?

A. Lie on your left side.
B. Lie on your right side.
C. Increase your fluid intake.
D. Decrease your fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a liver biopsy, the nurse should instruct the client to lie on the right side. This position helps apply pressure to the biopsy site, promoting hemostasis and reducing the risk of bleeding. Lying on the left side may not provide adequate pressure to the site. Increasing fluid intake is generally beneficial to prevent dehydration and aid in the recovery process, whereas decreasing fluid intake could lead to dehydration and possible complications. Therefore, the correct instruction is to lie on the right side.

2. What is the first action a healthcare provider should take for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome?

A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
B. Get IV access
C. Auscultate heart sounds
D. Obtain cardiac enzymes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the initial priority action for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, reduce chest pain, and improve blood flow to the heart muscle. This helps in relieving symptoms and preventing further damage to the heart. Establishing IV access, auscultating heart sounds, and obtaining cardiac enzymes are important steps in the assessment and management of acute coronary syndrome but are not the first actions to be taken. IV access may be needed for administering medications or fluids, auscultating heart sounds helps in assessing the heart's function, and obtaining cardiac enzymes aids in diagnosing a heart attack.

3. What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. Serum albumin levels
C. Hemoglobin levels
D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.

4. A nurse is teaching a client about using a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device to treat obstructive sleep apnea. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. It delivers a preset amount of inspiratory pressure throughout the breathing cycle
B. It has a continuous adjustment feature that changes the airway pressure throughout the cycle
C. It delivers a preset amount of airway pressure throughout the breathing cycle
D. It delivers positive pressure at the end of each breath

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a CPAP device delivers a preset amount of positive airway pressure continuously throughout all inspiration and expiration cycles. Choice A is incorrect because CPAP does not deliver inspiratory pressure at the beginning of each breath; it provides continuous positive pressure. Choice B is incorrect because CPAP typically delivers a constant pressure rather than having a feature that changes pressure throughout the cycle. Choice D is incorrect as CPAP does not deliver positive pressure specifically at the end of each breath; it maintains a consistent pressure throughout the breathing cycle.

5. What symptoms are associated with a thrombotic stroke?

A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
B. Sudden loss of consciousness
C. Loss of motor function with nausea
D. Severe headache and vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A thrombotic stroke presents with a gradual loss of function on one side of the body due to a clot blocking blood flow to the brain. This gradual onset distinguishes it from a hemorrhagic stroke with sudden symptoms like loss of consciousness (Choice B), and from other conditions like migraine, which may present with severe headache and vomiting (Choice D). Nausea (Choice C) is not typically a primary symptom associated with a thrombotic stroke.