ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet
1. What are the signs and symptoms of Increased Intracranial Pressure (IICP)?
- A. Irritability, confusion, restlessness
- B. Fatigue and SOB
- C. Changes in pupillary response
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irritability, confusion, restlessness. These are common signs of Increased Intracranial Pressure (IICP) as they result from the increased pressure on brain tissue. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fatigue and shortness of breath (SOB) are not typical symptoms of IICP. Changes in pupillary response can be seen in other conditions but are not specific to IICP. Elevated blood pressure is not a common sign of IICP.
2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who reports a possible exposure to HIV. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as an early manifestation of HIV infection?
- A. Stomatitis
- B. Fatigue
- C. Wasting syndrome
- D. Lipodystrophy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Fatigue.' Early manifestations of HIV infection often include symptoms like fatigue, fever, and rash, which are typical of viral infections. Stomatitis (choice A) refers to inflammation of the mouth and lips, which can occur in HIV but is not specific to early infection. Wasting syndrome (choice C) and lipodystrophy (choice D) are more commonly associated with later stages of HIV infection rather than early manifestations.
3. What is the initial nursing action for a patient with chest pain and acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Check the patient's urine output
- C. Check cardiac enzymes
- D. Obtain IV access
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the priority initial action for a patient with chest pain and acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps vasodilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and reducing chest pain. Checking the patient's urine output (choice B) and cardiac enzymes (choice C) are important assessments but are not the first priority when managing acute chest pain. Obtaining IV access (choice D) is essential for administering medications and fluids, but administering sublingual nitroglycerin takes precedence in the initial management of chest pain in acute coronary syndrome.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and is receiving 3% sodium chloride via continuous IV. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the SIADH is resolving?
- A. Urine specific gravity 1.020
- B. Sodium 119 mEq/L
- C. BUN 8 mg/dL
- D. Calcium 8.7 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.020 is within the expected reference range and indicates that the kidneys are appropriately concentrating urine, which is a sign that the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is resolving. A low sodium level (choice B) is associated with SIADH, so a sodium level of 119 mEq/L is not indicative of resolution. BUN (choice C) and calcium levels (choice D) are typically not directly related to SIADH resolution.
5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?
- A. Monitor for increased blood pressure
- B. Increase intake of high-potassium foods
- C. Expect an increase in swelling in the hands and feet
- D. Take the second dose at bedtime
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Furosemide can lead to hypokalemia, a condition of low potassium levels in the blood. Increasing the consumption of high-potassium foods helps prevent this adverse effect. Monitoring for increased blood pressure (choice A) is not directly related to furosemide use. Expecting an increase in swelling (choice C) is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce swelling. Taking the second dose at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary unless prescribed by the healthcare provider.
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