ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is teaching a client about the dietary management of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Decrease fiber intake
- B. Drink peppermint tea
- C. Increase foods that are high in fat
- D. Avoid foods with gluten
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Drink peppermint tea.' Peppermint tea can help relax the smooth muscles of the gastrointestinal tract, reducing symptoms of IBS, such as bloating and abdominal discomfort. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing fiber intake is not recommended for IBS management as fiber can help regulate bowel movements. Increasing foods high in fat can exacerbate symptoms of IBS, as high-fat foods can be harder to digest. Avoiding foods with gluten is more relevant for individuals with gluten sensitivity or celiac disease, not specifically for IBS management.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with a recent diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Methotrexate
- B. Pyridostigmine
- C. Baclofen
- D. Atropine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pyridostigmine is the drug of choice for treating myasthenia gravis because it enhances communication between nerves and muscles by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase. Methotrexate (choice A) is not indicated for myasthenia gravis but is used in conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. Baclofen (choice C) is a muscle relaxant used for conditions like spasticity. Atropine (choice D) is not typically used in myasthenia gravis as it can worsen muscle weakness.
3. A nurse is planning a staff education session regarding biological weapons of mass destruction. What should the nurse include in the session?
- A. Rabies, cholera, meningitis
- B. Smallpox, anthrax, botulism
- C. Ebola, hepatitis B, tetanus
- D. Tuberculosis, influenza, measles
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smallpox, anthrax, botulism. These are known biological weapons that can be used in mass casualty situations. Rabies, cholera, and meningitis (Choice A) are not typically used as biological weapons. Ebola, hepatitis B, and tetanus (Choice C) are serious diseases but are not commonly associated with biological warfare. Tuberculosis, influenza, and measles (Choice D) are infectious diseases but are not typically used as biological weapons of mass destruction.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?
- A. Glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/min
- B. BUN 16 mg/dL
- C. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
- D. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 14 mL/min indicates severely impaired kidney function, often necessitating hemodialysis to support renal function and manage fluid and electrolyte balance. A BUN level of 16 mg/dL falls within the normal range (7-20 mg/dL) and does not specifically indicate the need for hemodialysis. Serum magnesium at 1.8 mg/dL and serum phosphorus at 4.0 mg/dL are also within normal ranges and do not typically prompt the immediate need for hemodialysis in chronic kidney disease.
5. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?
- A. Polyuria
- B. Hypertension
- C. Pruritus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.
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