ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is teaching a client about the dietary management of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Decrease fiber intake
- B. Drink peppermint tea
- C. Increase foods that are high in fat
- D. Avoid foods with gluten
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Drink peppermint tea.' Peppermint tea can help relax the smooth muscles of the gastrointestinal tract, reducing symptoms of IBS, such as bloating and abdominal discomfort. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing fiber intake is not recommended for IBS management as fiber can help regulate bowel movements. Increasing foods high in fat can exacerbate symptoms of IBS, as high-fat foods can be harder to digest. Avoiding foods with gluten is more relevant for individuals with gluten sensitivity or celiac disease, not specifically for IBS management.
2. A client has a stool culture positive for C. difficile. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in a negative pressure room
- B. Use alcohol-based hand rub after providing care
- C. Wear a face shield before entering the room
- D. Place the client in a private room
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When caring for a client with a C. difficile infection, it is essential to isolate them in a private room to prevent the spread of spores through contact with surfaces. Placing the client in a negative pressure room (Choice A) is not necessary for C. difficile. Using alcohol-based hand rub (Choice B) and wearing a face shield (Choice C) are important infection control measures but are not specific to the isolation requirements for C. difficile.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Tinnitus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone levels, which results in potassium retention. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and tinnitus (Choice D) are also not typically associated with enalapril use.
4. A nurse is planning a staff education session regarding biological weapons of mass destruction. What should the nurse include in the session?
- A. Rabies, cholera, meningitis
- B. Smallpox, anthrax, botulism
- C. Ebola, hepatitis B, tetanus
- D. Tuberculosis, influenza, measles
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smallpox, anthrax, botulism. These are known biological weapons that can be used in mass casualty situations. Rabies, cholera, and meningitis (Choice A) are not typically used as biological weapons. Ebola, hepatitis B, and tetanus (Choice C) are serious diseases but are not commonly associated with biological warfare. Tuberculosis, influenza, and measles (Choice D) are infectious diseases but are not typically used as biological weapons of mass destruction.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 12 hours post-surgery. The client has an indwelling urinary catheter, and the nurse notes a urinary output of 15 mL/hr. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Irrigate the catheter
- B. Assess the patency of the catheter
- C. Increase the IV fluid rate
- D. Notify the provider
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should first assess the patency of the catheter to ensure that the low output is not caused by a blockage. It is crucial to rule out any obstructions before considering other interventions. Irrigating the catheter without verifying patency may worsen the situation if there is a blockage. Increasing IV fluid rate may not address the underlying issue if the problem lies with the catheter. Notifying the provider should come after ensuring the catheter's patency.
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