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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is teaching a client about the dietary management of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Decrease fiber intake
- B. Drink peppermint tea
- C. Increase foods that are high in fat
- D. Avoid foods with gluten
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Drink peppermint tea.' Peppermint tea can help relax the smooth muscles of the gastrointestinal tract, reducing symptoms of IBS, such as bloating and abdominal discomfort. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing fiber intake is not recommended for IBS management as fiber can help regulate bowel movements. Increasing foods high in fat can exacerbate symptoms of IBS, as high-fat foods can be harder to digest. Avoiding foods with gluten is more relevant for individuals with gluten sensitivity or celiac disease, not specifically for IBS management.
2. A healthcare provider is caring for a patient and realizes they administered the wrong medication. What action should the healthcare provider take first?
- A. Notify the provider.
- B. Report the incident to the risk manager.
- C. Check the condition of the patient.
- D. Complete an incident report.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The healthcare provider should first assess the patient to determine if any harm has occurred as a result of the medication error. Checking the patient's condition takes precedence as it allows for immediate intervention if necessary. Notifying the provider (choice A) can come later once the patient's condition is assessed. Reporting to the risk manager (choice B) and completing an incident report (choice D) are important steps but should follow the initial assessment of the patient to ensure timely and appropriate actions are taken.
3. A nurse working in a mobile health clinic is assessing a migrant farm worker. What finding should the nurse identify as a priority?
- A. Report of fatigue and fever
- B. Report of muscle twitching and skin rash
- C. Report of blurred vision
- D. Report of nasal congestion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Muscle twitching and a skin rash may indicate exposure to pesticides, which requires immediate intervention due to potential toxicity. Fatigue and fever (Choice A) are non-specific symptoms that may indicate various conditions but do not directly indicate pesticide exposure. Blurred vision (Choice C) and nasal congestion (Choice D) are also non-specific symptoms and are less likely to be related to pesticide exposure compared to muscle twitching and a skin rash.
4. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Increased energy levels
- B. Pale skin
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pale skin is a common sign of anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels, leading to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. This results in skin pallor. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Anemia typically causes fatigue and decreased energy levels (not increased), low blood pressure (not elevated), and tachycardia (increased heart rate) to compensate for the decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
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