Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which action should the nurse take if the client develops toxicity?

• A. Administer calcium gluconate IV
• B. Increase the magnesium sulfate infusion
• C. Administer IV fluids
• D. Administer hydralazine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, administering calcium gluconate IV is crucial as it is the antidote for magnesium sulfate. Calcium gluconate helps reverse the effects of magnesium sulfate, especially when signs of toxicity like respiratory depression or loss of reflexes occur. Increasing the magnesium sulfate infusion would worsen toxicity. Administering IV fluids may be beneficial for hydration but does not address magnesium sulfate toxicity. Hydralazine is used to manage hypertension, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.

2. A nurse is developing discharge care plans for a client who has osteoporosis. To prevent injury, the nurse should instruct the client to:

• A. Perform weight-bearing exercises
• B. Avoid crossing the legs beyond the midline
• C. Avoid sitting in one position for prolonged periods
• D. Splint the affected area

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform weight-bearing exercises. Weight-bearing exercises strengthen bones and help prevent fractures, which is crucial for clients with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding crossing the legs beyond the midline and avoiding sitting in one position for prolonged periods are general recommendations for preventing musculoskeletal issues but are not specific to osteoporosis. Splinting the affected area is not a standard practice for managing osteoporosis and preventing fractures.

3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed hydromorphone for severe pain. The client's respiratory rate has decreased from 16 breaths per minute to 6. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Flumazenil
• C. Activated charcoal
• D. Aluminum hydroxide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer. Naloxone is the antidote for opioid overdose, including hydromorphone. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, and a significant decrease in respiratory rate from 16 to 6 breaths per minute indicates respiratory compromise. Naloxone should be administered promptly to reverse the effects of the opioid and restore normal respiratory function. Flumazenil (Choice B) is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, not opioids. Activated charcoal (Choice C) is used for gastrointestinal decontamination in cases of overdose with certain substances, but it is not the appropriate intervention for opioid-induced respiratory depression. Aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) is an antacid and has no role in managing opioid overdose or respiratory depression.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer TPN with added fat supplements to a client who has malnutrition. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the TPN solution separately from 0.9% sodium chloride
• B. Check for an allergy to eggs
• C. Discuss the TPN solution with the client
• D. Monitor for hypoglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer TPN with fat supplements is to check for an allergy to eggs. The lipid emulsion in TPN often contains egg phospholipids, so screening for egg allergies is crucial to prevent any adverse reactions. Option A is incorrect because TPN should not be piggybacked with 0.9% sodium chloride to avoid any interactions or dilution of the TPN solution. Option C is incorrect as discussing the TPN solution with the client is not the priority when preparing to administer it. Option D is incorrect as monitoring for hypoglycemia, although important in TPN administration, is not specifically related to the addition of fat supplements.

5. A nurse is caring for a client receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation. The client’s contractions are occurring every 45 seconds and lasting 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
• B. Increase the oxytocin infusion
• C. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
• D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation with contractions every 45 seconds lasting 90 seconds. This frequency and duration of contractions can lead to fetal distress. The appropriate nursing action is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion immediately to prevent complications. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the situation, while decreasing it may not be sufficient to address the issue effectively.

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