ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which action should the nurse take if the client develops toxicity?
- A. Administer calcium gluconate IV
- B. Increase the magnesium sulfate infusion
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. Administer hydralazine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, administering calcium gluconate IV is crucial as it is the antidote for magnesium sulfate. Calcium gluconate helps reverse the effects of magnesium sulfate, especially when signs of toxicity like respiratory depression or loss of reflexes occur. Increasing the magnesium sulfate infusion would worsen toxicity. Administering IV fluids may be beneficial for hydration but does not address magnesium sulfate toxicity. Hydralazine is used to manage hypertension, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.
2. A nurse is assessing a 2-hour-old newborn for cold stress. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Respiratory rate of 60/min
- B. Jitteriness of the hands
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Bounding peripheral pulses
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jitteriness of the hands. Jitteriness is a key sign of cold stress in a newborn, indicating the need for immediate warming measures. A respiratory rate of 60/min may not be directly indicative of cold stress. Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) and bounding peripheral pulses are not typical findings associated with cold stress in newborns.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Which food selection indicates an understanding of dietary teaching?
- A. Cottage cheese
- B. Tuna salad
- C. Rice with black beans
- D. Three-egg omelet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rice with black beans.' Clients with hepatic encephalopathy should limit animal proteins due to their high ammonia content, which can exacerbate symptoms. Plant-based proteins like beans are preferred as they help reduce ammonia levels. Choices A, B, and D contain animal proteins that are not ideal for clients with hepatic encephalopathy.
4. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a UTI. What prescription should the nurse verify with a provider?
- A. Ciprofloxacin
- B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- C. Oxybutynin
- D. Nitrofurantoin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic used to treat overactive bladder, not a UTI. The nurse should verify this prescription because it may not be appropriate for a UTI. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of UTIs. Ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin are more suitable choices for the treatment of a UTI compared to oxybutynin.
5. A nurse is obtaining the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for isosorbide mononitrate. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a contraindication to this medication?
- A. Glaucoma
- B. Hypertension
- C. Polycythemia
- D. Migraine headaches
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Isosorbide mononitrate is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma due to its potential to increase intraocular pressure, which can exacerbate the condition. Hypertension, polycythemia, and migraine headaches are not contraindications for isosorbide mononitrate. In fact, isosorbide mononitrate is commonly used in the management of hypertension and certain types of angina.
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