a nurse is assisting a client who signed an informed consent form for surgery but has since expressed doubts about the need for surgery which statemen
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A client who signed an informed consent form for surgery but has since expressed doubts about the need for surgery should discuss concerns with the surgeon to obtain informed answers. Which statement should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the nurse should facilitate communication between the client and the surgeon to address any doubts and provide necessary information. Choice A may invalidate the client's concerns and might not address the root of the issue. Choice B oversimplifies the situation and might not consider the potential consequences of canceling surgery. Choice D, while offering an alternative, does not address the client's doubts about the surgery.

2. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 10 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasal flaring can indicate respiratory distress in a newborn, which is a critical finding requiring immediate attention. This may suggest an issue with breathing or lung function. Reporting nasal flaring promptly allows the provider to assess and intervene to ensure the newborn's respiratory status is stable. Choices A, C, and D are within normal parameters for a 10-hour-old newborn and do not indicate an immediate concern. An axillary temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) is within the normal range for a newborn. A heart rate of 158/min is typical for a newborn, and one void since birth is an expected finding at this early stage.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube and is receiving enteral feedings. The client reports feeling nauseated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client with a nasogastric tube reports feeling nauseated is to check the client's bowel sounds. This assessment helps the nurse evaluate for possible complications, such as a blockage or decreased gastric motility, that could be causing the nausea. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) should not be the first action without assessing the underlying cause of the nausea. Slowing the rate of the feeding (Choice C) may be appropriate but is not the priority until further assessment is done. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice D) is not typically indicated for managing nausea in this situation.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Gentamicin is known to cause nephrotoxicity as an adverse effect. Proteinuria, which is the presence of excess proteins in the urine, may indicate kidney damage from the medication. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients receiving gentamicin. Choice A, hypoglycemia, is not a typical adverse effect of gentamicin. Choices C and D, nasal congestion and visual disturbances, are not commonly associated with gentamicin use or its adverse effects.

5. A client is being taught about the use of nitroglycerin. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the nitroglycerin tablet under the tongue. Nitroglycerin tablets are meant for sublingual absorption during angina episodes to provide quick relief. Option A is incorrect because nitroglycerin should not be taken with food. Option C is incorrect as nitroglycerin should be stored in a cool, dark place, not in the refrigerator. Option D is incorrect because nitroglycerin can have side effects, including headaches, dizziness, and low blood pressure.

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