Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preterm labor and has a new prescription for terbutaline. Which of the following findings is a contraindication for the administration of this medication?

• A. Heart disease
• B. Cervical dilation of 2 cm
• C. Gestational age of 34 weeks
• D. Allergy to penicillin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, heart disease. Terbutaline is contraindicated in clients with heart disease because it can lead to tachycardia and other cardiac complications due to its beta-agonist properties. Choice B, cervical dilation of 2 cm, is not a contraindication for terbutaline administration in preterm labor. Choice C, gestational age of 34 weeks, does not contraindicate the use of terbutaline for preterm labor. Choice D, allergy to penicillin, is not related to the contraindications of terbutaline.

2. A client with a new ileostomy is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statement indicates the client understands the teaching?

• A. I will make sure my medications are enteric-coated.
• B. My stoma will drain liquid continuously.
• C. I will change my pouch system every two weeks.
• D. My stoma size will stay the same after it heals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ileostomy stomas typically drain liquid continuously, unlike colostomies. This continuous drainage is a key characteristic that clients should understand postoperatively. Choice A is incorrect because ensuring medications are enteric-coated is not directly related to understanding ileostomy care. Choice C is incorrect as changing the pouch system every two weeks is not a general rule and may vary depending on the individual's needs. Choice D is incorrect because the stoma size can change during the healing process and clients should be informed about this possibility.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.

4. A community health nurse is teaching a group of clients about first aid for wounds. Which client statement indicates understanding?

• A. Remove blood-saturated dressings
• B. Apply clean dressings over the saturated ones and hold pressure
• C. Elevate the wound above heart level
• D. Leave the wound open to air

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Applying clean dressings over blood-saturated ones and holding pressure helps to control bleeding and prevent tissue disruption. Removing blood-saturated dressings can cause further damage by disrupting the forming clot. Elevating the wound above heart level is beneficial to reduce swelling, but it is not the best immediate action for a blood-saturated dressing. Leaving the wound open to air can increase the risk of infection and slow down the healing process.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone levels, which results in potassium retention. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and tinnitus (Choice D) are also not typically associated with enalapril use.

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