a nurse is caring for a client receiving oxytocin for labor augmentation the contractions are occurring every 45 seconds lasting 90 seconds what shoul
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. While caring for a client receiving oxytocin for labor augmentation, the nurse notes contractions occurring every 45 seconds and lasting 90 seconds. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. The client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and complications. By stopping the oxytocin, the nurse can help regulate contractions and prevent harm to the fetus. Increasing the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the issue by further intensifying contractions. Applying an internal fetal monitor may be necessary for closer monitoring but is not the immediate action required. Administering an analgesic is not appropriate in this scenario as the primary concern is addressing the uterine hyperstimulation caused by oxytocin.

2. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of allergic reaction. Which of the following should the nurse look for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct! When assessing a client for signs of an allergic reaction, a nurse should look for a rash. A rash is a common manifestation of an allergic response, such as contact dermatitis or hives. It is important to recognize and assess rashes promptly as they can indicate an allergic reaction.\nOption A, fever, is not typically a primary sign of an allergic reaction but may occur in severe cases. Option C, fatigue, is a general symptom and not specific to allergic reactions. Option D, increased appetite, is not a common sign of an allergic reaction and is more likely related to other conditions or factors.

3. A client is being educated about the use of spironolactone. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid potassium-rich foods. Spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. To prevent this complication, clients taking spironolactone should avoid potassium-rich foods. Choice B is incorrect because spironolactone can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use, as toxicity monitoring is not a specific concern with this medication. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing the medication solely based on elevated potassium levels may not be necessary; instead, dosage adjustments or potassium restriction are often more appropriate.

4. A client is found on the floor of their room experiencing a seizure. Which action is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client on their side with their head forward. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of fluids or secretions. Restraint should never be used during a seizure as it can cause harm to the client. Performing a neurological assessment is important but not the immediate priority during an active seizure. While monitoring vitals is essential, ensuring the client's airway is clear takes precedence.

5. A healthcare professional is teaching a client about reducing the risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which factor increases the risk of UTI?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using perfumed toilet paper can irritate the urinary tract and increase the risk of UTI, so it should be avoided. Wearing underwear with a cotton crotch (Choice A) is a preventive measure as cotton allows for better air circulation and reduces moisture, lowering the risk of UTIs. Wiping from front to back (Choice B) helps prevent the introduction of bacteria from the anal region to the urinary tract. Urinating after intercourse (Choice D) can help flush out bacteria introduced during sexual activity, thereby reducing the risk of UTIs.

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