a nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving oxytocin iv for labor augmentation the clients contractions are occurring every 2 minutes and la
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation. The client's contractions are occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. The client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation, as evidenced by contractions occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds. Discontinuing the oxytocin is crucial to prevent fetal distress and uterine rupture. Increasing the IV fluid rate would not address the uterine hyperstimulation caused by oxytocin. Applying an internal fetal monitor is not the priority at this moment; first, the oxytocin infusion needs to be stopped to manage the uterine hyperstimulation effectively.

2. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.

3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, so the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding and liver function tests due to potential liver effects. Monitoring liver function tests is essential to detect any adverse effects on the liver because clopidogrel can cause hepatotoxicity. While monitoring blood pressure, potassium levels, and respiratory rate are important in general patient care, they are not the priority assessments specifically related to clopidogrel use.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is to administer lorazepam. Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, is commonly used to manage the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal by preventing seizures and reducing agitation and anxiety. Encouraging frequent ambulation (choice A) may not be safe during alcohol withdrawal due to potential instability and confusion. Providing a low-calorie diet (choice C) is not a priority during alcohol withdrawal, as the focus is on managing withdrawal symptoms. Administering insulin as prescribed (choice D) is unrelated to managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare professional monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In heart failure, the accumulation of fluid can lead to peripheral edema, which is swelling in the extremities. This is a common sign that healthcare professionals should monitor for. While tachycardia (increased heart rate), bradycardia (decreased heart rate), and hypotension (low blood pressure) can also occur in heart failure, they are not the primary signs typically associated with this condition. Therefore, peripheral edema is the most relevant sign to monitor in this case.

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