a nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving oxytocin iv for labor augmentation the clients contractions are occurring every 2 minutes and la
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation. The client's contractions are occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. The client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation, as evidenced by contractions occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds. Discontinuing the oxytocin is crucial to prevent fetal distress and uterine rupture. Increasing the IV fluid rate would not address the uterine hyperstimulation caused by oxytocin. Applying an internal fetal monitor is not the priority at this moment; first, the oxytocin infusion needs to be stopped to manage the uterine hyperstimulation effectively.

2. A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Heparin therapy requires monitoring of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) to ensure therapeutic levels. APTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to assess the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy. Monitoring INR levels is more relevant for assessing warfarin therapy, not heparin. Blood glucose levels are monitored for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting glucose levels. Liver function tests are used to assess liver health and are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.

4. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle crash and has a minor traumatic brain injury (TBI). What finding should the nurse recognize as a complication and report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Unequal pupils are a sign of increased intracranial pressure or worsening brain injury, indicating a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention. Hypertension, vomiting, and drainage from the ear are not typically associated with minor traumatic brain injury complications; therefore, they are not the priority findings to report to the provider.

5. A client is found on the floor of their room experiencing a seizure. Which action is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client on their side with their head forward. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of fluids or secretions. Restraint should never be used during a seizure as it can cause harm to the client. Performing a neurological assessment is important but not the immediate priority during an active seizure. While monitoring vitals is essential, ensuring the client's airway is clear takes precedence.

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