a nurse in a providers office is assessing a client who reports a decrease in the effectiveness of their arthritis medication which client information
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports a decrease in the effectiveness of their arthritis medication. Which client information should the nurse identify as a contributing factor to the decrease in the medication's effectiveness?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A history of recurring bowel inflammation can impact the absorption and effectiveness of arthritis medication. Bowel inflammation can affect the body's ability to absorb the medication properly, leading to decreased effectiveness. Choices A, B, and D do not directly relate to the decreased effectiveness of the arthritis medication. Taking medication with water, skipping doses, or taking anti-inflammatory medication without food may not be ideal practices but are not directly linked to the decrease in effectiveness reported by the client.

2. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of atorvastatin. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor for muscle pain.' Atorvastatin can cause muscle pain and liver function abnormalities, so clients should be monitored for these side effects. Choice B is incorrect because atorvastatin is not known to cause weight gain. Choice C is incorrect as atorvastatin is contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus. Choice D is incorrect because atorvastatin is a statin medication used to lower cholesterol levels, not an anticoagulant.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.

5. During a change-of-shift assessment, a nurse is evaluating four clients. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should report the client with gastroenteritis who is lethargic and confused to the provider first. Lethargy and confusion in a client with gastroenteritis may indicate dehydration or electrolyte imbalance, both of which can be life-threatening if not addressed promptly. The other options indicate important assessments that require intervention but do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the client with signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.

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