ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has tuberculosis (TB) and is prescribed rifampin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. This medication can cause your urine to turn a reddish-orange color.
- B. You should expect to take this medication for at least 6 months.
- C. You should avoid eating dairy products while on this medication.
- D. This medication can cause sensitivity to sunlight.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rifampin can cause harmless red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, sweat, and tears. Clients should be informed about this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because the duration of rifampin therapy for TB is typically longer than 6 months. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to avoid dairy products while on rifampin. Choice D is incorrect as rifampin does not cause sensitivity to sunlight.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with a history of heart disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional monitor?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Weight
- C. Heart rhythm
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring blood pressure, weight, and heart rhythm is crucial in clients with a history of heart disease as these parameters can indicate changes in the cardiovascular status. Changes in blood pressure can signify heart strain, weight fluctuations can be related to fluid retention or heart failure, and irregular heart rhythm can indicate arrhythmias or other cardiac issues. Monitoring all these parameters comprehensively allows for early detection of potential complications and timely intervention. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' is the correct choice as it encompasses all the essential parameters for monitoring in clients with heart disease. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as monitoring only one or two of these parameters may lead to missing important changes in the client's condition.
3. A client is being taught about the use of digoxin. Which of the following should be included?
- A. Monitor for low blood pressure
- B. It can cause bradycardia
- C. Take it with calcium supplements
- D. It has no side effects
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It can cause bradycardia.' Digoxin can cause bradycardia as one of its side effects. Clients should be educated about this potential effect and instructed to monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin is more likely to cause arrhythmias than low blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as calcium supplements can interfere with the absorption of digoxin. Choice D is incorrect as digoxin has various side effects, and clients should be aware of them.
4. A nurse is caring for a laboring client and notes that the fetal heart rate begins to decelerate after the contraction has started. The lowest point of deceleration occurs after the peak of the contraction. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Change the client's position
- C. Increase IV fluids
- D. Call the healthcare provider
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, indicating that the fetus is not receiving adequate oxygen during contractions. This is an emergency that requires prompt intervention. Changing the client's position helps improve placental blood flow, reducing stress on the fetus. Administering oxygen may be necessary if changing position does not resolve the decelerations. Increasing IV fluids is not the priority in this situation as it won't directly address the cause of late decelerations. Calling the healthcare provider should be done after immediate interventions like changing the client's position have been implemented and assessed.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?
- A. 19 gtt/min
- B. 20 gtt/min
- C. 21 gtt/min
- D. 22 gtt/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Calculation: 1000 mL / 480 minutes × 10 gtt/mL = 20.83, rounded to 21 gtt/min. This ensures proper IV fluid administration over the prescribed time. Choice C is the correct answer as it reflects the accurate calculation based on the given parameters. Choice A is incorrect because it does not accurately calculate the infusion rate. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the precise calculation required. Choice D is incorrect as it deviates from the correct calculation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access