ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A nurse is assessing a client who reports chest pain. Which of the following findings should cause the nurse to suspect a myocardial infarction?
- A. Pain improves with rest
- B. Pain radiates to the left arm.
- C. Pain worsens with deep breathing.
- D. Pain is relieved by antacids.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Radiating pain, especially to the left arm, is a classic sign of myocardial infarction. Pain that radiates to the left arm indicates cardiac involvement, making it a significant finding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chest pain that improves with rest, worsens with deep breathing, or is relieved by antacids is less likely to be associated with a myocardial infarction.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 38 weeks pregnant and has a history of herpes simplex virus 2. Which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask?
- A. Have your membranes ruptured?
- B. How far apart are your contractions?
- C. Do you have any active lesions?
- D. Are you positive for beta strep?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask is whether the client has any active herpes lesions. This is crucial because the presence of active lesions can necessitate a cesarean section to prevent transmission of the virus to the newborn. Asking about membrane rupture (choice A) is important but not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status. Inquiring about the frequency of contractions (choice B) is relevant for assessing labor progression but does not address the immediate concern of herpes transmission. Asking about being positive for beta strep (choice D) is important for determining the need for prophylactic antibiotics during labor, but it is not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. A Pap test is recommended every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65.
- B. Pap tests are recommended following removal of the ovaries.
- C. Avoid having sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test.
- D. Viral infections cannot be detected by a Pap test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients should avoid sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test to ensure accurate results, as it can affect the sample. This is important for obtaining reliable results. Choice A is incorrect because a yearly Pap test is not the standard recommendation for all age groups; instead, it is typically every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65. Choice B is incorrect because Pap tests are not necessarily discontinued following removal of the ovaries; they may still be needed based on the individual's health history and provider recommendations. Choice D is incorrect because while Pap tests are primarily used to detect abnormal cervical cells and cervical cancer, they do not detect viral infections.
4. A nurse is teaching a client with mild persistent asthma who has been prescribed montelukast. Which statement by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. This medication can be used during an acute asthma attack.
- B. This medication should be taken before exercise.
- C. You can take this medication for 10 days, then discontinue.
- D. This medication helps decrease swelling and mucus production.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'This medication helps decrease swelling and mucus production.' Montelukast is used for long-term asthma management as it helps reduce inflammation and mucus production in the airways. It is not appropriate for acute asthma attacks. Choice A is incorrect because montelukast is not a rescue medication for acute attacks. Choice B is incorrect because montelukast is not specifically taken before exercise. Choice C is incorrect because montelukast is usually taken regularly, not just for a short duration.
5. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a UTI. What prescription should the nurse verify with a provider?
- A. Ciprofloxacin
- B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- C. Oxybutynin
- D. Nitrofurantoin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic used to treat overactive bladder, not a UTI. The nurse should verify this prescription because it may not be appropriate for a UTI. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of UTIs. Ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin are more suitable choices for the treatment of a UTI compared to oxybutynin.
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