a nurse is assessing a client who reports chest pain which of the following findings should cause the nurse to suspect a myocardial infarction
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A nurse is assessing a client who reports chest pain. Which of the following findings should cause the nurse to suspect a myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Radiating pain, especially to the left arm, is a classic sign of myocardial infarction. Pain that radiates to the left arm indicates cardiac involvement, making it a significant finding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chest pain that improves with rest, worsens with deep breathing, or is relieved by antacids is less likely to be associated with a myocardial infarction.

2. A nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following suggested foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with phenylketonuria (PKU) must adhere to a strict low-phenylalanine diet to prevent neurological damage. Foods high in phenylalanine such as peanut butter, wheat bread, chocolate chip cookies, milk, scrambled eggs, and cheddar cheese should be avoided. Sliced apples and red grapes are low in phenylalanine, making them safe choices for individuals with PKU. Choice A (peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread), Choice C (chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk), and Choice D (scrambled egg with cheddar cheese) are all high in phenylalanine and should be avoided by individuals with PKU.

3. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of clopidogrel. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of bleeding.' Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, not an anticoagulant. Clients taking clopidogrel should be monitored for signs of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effects. Choice A is incorrect because clopidogrel is not an anticoagulant. Choice C is incorrect as clopidogrel should not be stopped abruptly but as directed by a healthcare provider. Choice D is irrelevant since foods rich in vitamin K are more of a concern with anticoagulant medications like warfarin, not antiplatelet medications like clopidogrel.

4. A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering enoxaparin is to inject the medication in the abdomen subcutaneously. This route ensures proper absorption of the medication. Aspiration is not necessary before injecting enoxaparin as it is a subcutaneous injection, not an intramuscular injection. Massaging the site after injecting should be avoided to prevent bruising. Enoxaparin injections are typically given at a 45 to 90-degree angle, not necessarily at a strict 90-degree angle.

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