a nurse is reviewing the medication metformin with a client who has diabetes which of the following side effects should the nurse discuss
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PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A nurse is reviewing the medication metformin with a client who has diabetes. Which of the following side effects should the nurse discuss?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gastrointestinal upset. Metformin can cause gastrointestinal upset, especially when first starting therapy. It is important to take it with food to reduce these effects. Increased appetite (choice B) and weight loss (choice C) are not common side effects of metformin but may occur due to improved blood sugar control. Frequent urination (choice D) is a symptom of uncontrolled diabetes and not a side effect of metformin.

2. A community nurse is instructing a group of high school students about the transmission of hepatitis A. Which mode of transmission should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fecal-oral. Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the fecal-oral route, often from consuming contaminated food or water. Choice A, sexual contact, is not a typical mode of transmission for hepatitis A. Choice B, airborne droplets, is more characteristic of diseases like influenza or tuberculosis. Choice D, bloodborne transmission, is more relevant to hepatitis B and C, not hepatitis A.

3. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with Alzheimer’s disease. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care to support the client’s cognitive function?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing a daily calendar in the kitchen is essential to help clients with Alzheimer's stay oriented to time and maintain cognitive function. It supports their ability to recall the day, date, and upcoming events, promoting a sense of control over their environment. Choices B, C, and D do not directly target cognitive function support in clients with Alzheimer's disease. While replacing buttoned clothing with zippered items may aid in dressing independently, changing the flooring or introducing variation in the daily routine does not specifically address cognitive function support.

5. A nurse is admitting a client who is in labor and at 38 weeks of gestation to the maternal newborn unit. The client has a history of herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2). Which of the following questions is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask the client in this scenario is whether they have any active lesions. Active lesions from HSV-2 during labor increase the risk of neonatal transmission, which would necessitate a cesarean section to prevent the infant from contracting the virus during delivery. Asking about the presence of active lesions is crucial to determine the appropriate management and precautions needed to protect the newborn. Choices A, B, and D are not as pertinent in this situation and do not directly address the potential risk of neonatal transmission of HSV-2.

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