Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medication metformin with a client who has diabetes. Which of the following side effects should the nurse discuss?

• A. Gastrointestinal upset
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Weight loss
• D. Frequent urination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gastrointestinal upset. Metformin can cause gastrointestinal upset, especially when first starting therapy. It is important to take it with food to reduce these effects. Increased appetite (choice B) and weight loss (choice C) are not common side effects of metformin but may occur due to improved blood sugar control. Frequent urination (choice D) is a symptom of uncontrolled diabetes and not a side effect of metformin.

2. A nurse is teaching a client about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for the screening of colorectal cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. “Your provider will use stool samples from your bowel movement to perform the test.”
• B. “Your provider will prescribe a stimulant laxative prior to the procedure to cleanse the bowel.”
• C. “You should begin biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at 50 years old.”
• D. “You should avoid taking corticosteroids prior to testing.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid corticosteroids and vitamin C prior to testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect because stool samples from bowel movements, not from digital rectal examinations, are used for FOBT. Choice B is incorrect because a stimulant laxative is not typically prescribed before FOBT; rather, the client is instructed to follow specific dietary restrictions. Choice C is incorrect because biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening usually begins at 50 years old, not 40.

3. A nurse is planning care for a newly admitted adolescent client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following instructions is appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

• A. Initiate droplet precautions
• B. Assist the client to a supine position
• C. Perform Glasgow Coma Scale assessment every 24 hours
• D. Recommend prophylactic acyclovir for the client’s family

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Initiate droplet precautions.' Bacterial meningitis requires droplet precautions to prevent the spread of infection, as the bacteria can be transmitted through respiratory secretions. Choice B is incorrect because assisting the client to a supine position is not specific to the care of a client with bacterial meningitis and may not be appropriate for all clients. Choice C is incorrect because while performing Glasgow Coma Scale assessments is important in managing clients with neurological conditions, it is not directly related to preventing the spread of bacterial meningitis. Choice D is incorrect because recommending prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family is not a standard precautionary measure for preventing the spread of bacterial meningitis.

4. A client who has undergone a cesarean birth is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?

• A. Limit stair climbing for the first few weeks
• B. Avoid lifting anything heavier than the newborn
• C. Use a pillow to support the abdomen when coughing or sneezing
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a cesarean birth, it is important for the client to follow specific instructions for optimal recovery. Limiting stair climbing reduces strain on the incision site, aiding in healing (Choice A). Avoiding lifting anything heavier than the newborn prevents stress on the incision, promoting recovery (Choice B). Using a pillow to support the abdomen during coughing or sneezing helps reduce discomfort and protect the incision, preventing sudden movements or strain (Choice C). Therefore, all the options provided are crucial post-cesarean birth instructions to ensure proper healing and recovery. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of post-cesarean care, making Option D the correct answer.

5. A client gave birth 4 hours ago and is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

• A. Elevate the client's legs to a 30° angle
• B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Massage the client's fundus
• D. Initiate an infusion of oxytocin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to massage the client's fundus first. Uterine atony is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, and massaging the fundus can help stimulate uterine contractions, which will assist in reducing bleeding. Elevating the client's legs to a 30° angle (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as fundal massage takes precedence. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice B) may be necessary but should not take precedence over managing the postpartum hemorrhage. Initiating an infusion of oxytocin (Choice D) is a valid intervention to address uterine atony, but massaging the fundus should come first to promote immediate contraction and control bleeding.

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