Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?

• A. Magnesium sulfate
• B. Oxytocin
• C. Misoprostol
• D. Nifedipine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following findings indicates oxygen toxicity?

• A. Oxygen saturation 94%
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Wheezing
• D. Peripheral cyanosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased respiratory rate. In clients with COPD, especially when receiving oxygen therapy, a decreased respiratory rate is indicative of oxygen toxicity. This occurs because their respiratory drive is often dependent on low oxygen levels. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not necessarily indicate oxygen toxicity. Wheezing is more commonly associated with airway narrowing or constriction, while peripheral cyanosis is a sign of decreased oxygen levels in the peripheral tissues, not oxygen toxicity.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing the pain level of a client who has dementia and difficulty communicating. Which pain assessment technique should the healthcare professional use?

• A. Numeric rating scale
• B. Behavioral indicators
• C. Visual analog scale
• D. Faces pain scale

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients with dementia who have difficulty communicating, assessing pain using behavioral indicators like increased agitation and restlessness is more effective than relying on self-reported scales such as numeric rating scale, visual analog scale, or faces pain scale. Behavioral indicators provide valuable insights into pain perception in individuals who may have challenges expressing themselves verbally.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage frequent ambulation
• B. Administer lorazepam
• C. Provide a low-calorie diet
• D. Administer insulin as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is to administer lorazepam. Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, is commonly used to manage the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal by preventing seizures and reducing agitation and anxiety. Encouraging frequent ambulation (choice A) may not be safe during alcohol withdrawal due to potential instability and confusion. Providing a low-calorie diet (choice C) is not a priority during alcohol withdrawal, as the focus is on managing withdrawal symptoms. Administering insulin as prescribed (choice D) is unrelated to managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

5. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.

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