Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?

• A. Magnesium sulfate
• B. Oxytocin
• C. Misoprostol
• D. Nifedipine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Serum glucose levels
• B. Serum potassium levels
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Both A and B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring serum glucose levels is essential due to the impact TPN can have on glucose metabolism. Additionally, electrolytes like potassium should be monitored as they can be affected by TPN administration. Blood pressure monitoring is not directly related to TPN administration, making choices A and B the correct options to monitor in this scenario.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client’s care plan. Which of the following goals is most appropriate?

• A. Client will inject insulin twice daily
• B. Client will keep appointments with the healthcare provider for 6 months
• C. Client's A1c will be 5% within one year
• D. Client's blood glucose will stay between 60-120 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A1c is a key indicator of long-term diabetes management, reflecting average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. Achieving a target A1c of 5% indicates good control of blood sugar levels and reduces the risk of diabetes-related complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as appropriate as they focus on short-term tasks or individual blood glucose readings, rather than long-term management and outcomes.

4. A client who is 2 hours postpartum reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Perform fundal massage
• B. Administer oxytocin IV
• C. Check vital signs
• D. Encourage the client to void

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform fundal massage. Fundal massage promotes uterine contractions, which is the initial action to reduce postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony. Checking vital signs (choice C) is important but not the priority when active bleeding is present. Administering oxytocin IV (choice B) may be needed but is not the priority action. Encouraging the client to void (choice D) does not address the underlying issue of postpartum hemorrhage and should not be the priority.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and has been receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. WBC 3,000/mm3
• B. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
• C. Platelets 250,000/mm3
• D. aPTT 30 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A WBC count of 3,000/mm3 indicates neutropenia, a dangerous complication of chemotherapy that increases the risk of infection and requires immediate attention. Neutropenia is a common side effect of chemotherapy and can lead to life-threatening infections. Reporting a low WBC count is crucial to ensure timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose immediate risks to the client undergoing chemotherapy.

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