Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching the parent of a newborn about car seat safety. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. You should keep the car seat rear-facing until your baby is at least 2 years old.
• B. Position the retainer clip over the upper part of your baby's abdomen.
• C. You should place your baby in the car seat with a slight recline.
• D. Place the shoulder harness straps in the slots at or below your baby's shoulders.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The car seat should remain rear-facing until the baby is at least 2 years old to ensure maximum safety in the event of a collision. This position helps protect the infant’s head, neck, and spine. Choice B is incorrect because the retainer clip should be positioned at armpit level on the baby, not over the upper part of the abdomen. Choice C is incorrect as the baby should be placed in the car seat with a slight recline, not at a 90-degree angle. Choice D is incorrect as the shoulder harness straps should be at or below the baby's shoulders, not above, to ensure proper fit and safety.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who gave birth 1 week ago. The client states, 'I don't know what's wrong. I love my baby, but I feel so let down and I seem to cry for no reason.' The nurse should identify that the client is experiencing which of the following emotional responses to birth?

• A. Postpartum depression
• B. Taking-in phase
• C. Postpartum blues
• D. Taking-hold phase

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is experiencing postpartum blues, not postpartum depression. Postpartum blues are common and characterized by mood swings, tearfulness, and emotional letdown shortly after delivery. The 'Taking-in phase' involves the mother focusing on her own needs, while the 'Taking-hold phase' is characterized by a desire to learn and feel competent in caring for the baby. Postpartum depression is a more severe and long-lasting condition that requires professional intervention.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has end-stage osteoporosis and is reporting severe pain. The client’s respiratory rate is 14 per minute. Which of the following medications should the nurse prioritize administering?

• A. Promethazine
• B. Hydromorphone
• C. Ketorolac
• D. Amitriptyline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hydromorphone, an opioid, is the most appropriate option for managing severe pain in this context. Opioids provide fast-acting relief for acute pain associated with advanced osteoporosis. Promethazine (Choice A) is an antihistamine and not indicated for pain relief. Ketorolac (Choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may increase the risk of bleeding and is not recommended for severe pain management. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant that is not the first-line treatment for severe acute pain.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin IV for augmentation of labor. The client’s contractions are occurring every 45 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is 170-180/minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
• B. Increase the oxytocin infusion
• C. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
• D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the contractions are too frequent (tachysystole), and the fetal heart rate is elevated. Tachysystole can lead to decreased oxygen perfusion to the fetus, causing fetal distress. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion to prevent harm to both the mother and fetus. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the current situation, potentially leading to further complications. Decreasing the oxytocin infusion may not be sufficient to address the tachysystole and elevated fetal heart rate, making it an inappropriate choice.

5. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of clopidogrel. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It is an anticoagulant
• B. Monitor for signs of bleeding
• C. It can be stopped abruptly
• D. Avoid foods rich in vitamin K

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of bleeding.' Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, not an anticoagulant. Clients taking clopidogrel should be monitored for signs of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effects. Choice A is incorrect because clopidogrel is not an anticoagulant. Choice C is incorrect as clopidogrel should not be stopped abruptly but as directed by a healthcare provider. Choice D is irrelevant since foods rich in vitamin K are more of a concern with anticoagulant medications like warfarin, not antiplatelet medications like clopidogrel.

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